By using this site, you agree to our Privacy Policy and our Terms of Use. Close

Forums - General - Jesus Christ of Nazareth loves you!

IIIIITHE1IIIII said:
NotStan said:
Slavery was fine? Dafuq.


(If my memory serves me right):  If we go by the Bible, raping the women of countries that you have occupied was fine.

 

Edit - I was kind of right:

10 When you go to war against your enemies and the Lord your God delivers them into your hands and you take captives, 11 if you notice among the captives a beautiful woman and are attracted to her,you may take her as your wife. 12 Bring her into your home and have her shave her head, trim her nails 13 and put aside the clothes she was wearing when captured. After she has lived in your house and mourned her father and mother for a full month, then you may go to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife.

Deuteronomy 21:10-13

*Facepalm*

How is this rape when this is about marrying a captive women. Back in the OT days when there was a war and the jewish men won they take there women and marry them. 1.  Because obvivous the men were all killed or going to kill (sometimes not depends) and the women had no where to go. Thiese women would have been left homeless and no food to be seen.  The women would actual go with the Jewish men to start a new life as there old one was over. No where in there does it say anything about. You clearly can't read or do research from what your comments are saying.

I will break it down just for you.

"10 When you go to war against your enemies and the Lord your God delivers them into your hands and you take captives,"

Self- said  they would take whatever was left over from the War.

"11 if you notice among the captives a beautiful woman and are attracted to her,you may take her as your wife. "

Self-said  they will take the women and make her his wife. Which isn't rape in anyway. Funny enough she would be supported with food and actually treated as wife and have children. "

"12 Bring her into your home and have her shave her head, trim her nails 13"

A traditional custom obviously. Please remember back in day they care to look SEXY or HOT in today world. Being a wife and honor was the most important. This was honorable therefor she would been totally ok with it.

"13 and put aside the clothes she was wearing when captured."

Change her clothes from what she wears in ther tribe( or whatever) and change them to theres.

"After she has lived in your house and mourned her father and mother for a full month, then you may go to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife."

After living with father and mother  for a month THEN he could marry her. Doesn't that sound like rape? Because all rapers like there rape victum live with there parnets for a full month and marry them. This totally sounds like legit raping. Question did you read on article or book on married in OT times? 

 

In no way is this rape, it's a man picking his wife after a war who would have had no future giving her a life and a new family. You would think that FULL month of her getting to know the mother/father and interacting with them was sign of this. BUT WENT WAYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY OVER YOUR HEAD!

Why do you pretend to understand?



"Excuse me sir, I see you have a weapon. Why don't you put it down and let's settle this like gentlemen"  ~ max

Around the Network
Immortal said:
pezus said:
Immortal said:

Sorry. I seem to have inadvertently offended you. The Europe comment was really not in relation to anything at all.

Arguing this would really get us nowhere I suspect, but, as far as I've noticed in France, Switzerland, Scandinavia, etc. atheism still isn't particularly inherent. I'm completely okay with atheists who honestly never believed, but most of them seem so violently opposed to religion and are constantly ranting all over the internet that religion is evil that I can't possibly believe that their disbelief has nothing to do with the fact that some people do believe.

You did not offend me. I don't understand how you come to that conclusion lol.

Why do you think it's the majority that rants on the internet? Do you know how many there are who sit behind their computers, don't believe in a god but still don't rant about it? If so, how do you know?

So far, I've seen exactly zero atheists who aren't actively aggressive towards religious people. 

Hi. 



pezus said:
"Deuteronomy 22:28-29
28 If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, 29 he shall pay her father fifty shekels[a] of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives."

Did you miss this?


What he quoted wasn't that so your point invailded.

The passages deal with two different issues.

But to answer this question.

First, you seem to think that is helping the rapist or screwing over the victum because she has to marry the rapist who raped. Your argument if we were talking modern times this would be great objection. But in OT days this was the best choice because she would no longer be regarded as marriageable and would therefore lose means of interdependent support. No one would marry her because she wasn't a virgin and therefor like previous stated she would be left to herself and mostly die. (note: there is nothing in the time as women fully supporting herself during those times because it would have been impossible.)In the passage we read "[He must] marry the girl, for he has [violated her]. [He can never] divorce her as long as he lives."  First,  we can see that the rapist is FORCED to marry the woman because he did in fact VIOLATE her and must support the women  FOREVER by never divorcing her. The woman/father/community leader at the time would have most likely demanded this happen because in this way the rapist would have been forced to support the woman and the woman would have financial support. Back in the OT times it wasn't about modern love and special feeling in your stomach it was about surviving and honor. This was a punishment to the man and is even phased as so.

Second,  with the father and the money related  to another ancient practice, the dowry. A girl who is married becomes part of a new family, which she goes on to support of her own means, and now relies upon for support; at the same time, her former family loses her support and assistance in daily survival, but gains nothing practical in return - hence the dowry.

 

This should answer the question.

 

 

 



"Excuse me sir, I see you have a weapon. Why don't you put it down and let's settle this like gentlemen"  ~ max

Jay520 said:
richardhutnik said:

Actually agnosticism is the opposite of a belief.  It states that the person forms no opinion, or has no knowledge one way or the other regarding God.    Hard agnosticism projects this on everything and says not only does the person who is agnostic doesn't know, but humans can't never know for sure.

Atheism is a negative belief.  It is a belief there is no God.  Hard atheism says not only does the person who is an atheist believe there is not a God, but there is no God at all.

Now, this doesn't mean that atheism is a belief one can build anything around.  A negative belief calls on a need to find other things to believe in positively.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atheism 
http://atheists.org/content/about-atheism 
http://www.conservapedia.com/Atheism#Atheism_and_why_do_atheists_state_they_disbelieve.3F 
http://www.investigatingatheism.info/definition.html 

The atheism you're referring to is a specific category of atheist. The broadest definition of atheism encompasses all people who don't believe in God. There is a group within that group which asserts that there is no God; this what you're referring to. These people are called strong atheists or hard atheists.

Agnosticism has nothing to with belief. Agnosticism has to do with knowledge. If you're an agnostic, then you assert that you don't know if God exists. If you're a gnostic, then you assert do know if god exists. It has nothing to do with belief. Atheism and theism deals with belief. There's a difference between knowledge and belief.

If you're a theist, then you believe that God exists. If you're an atheist, then you don't beleive God exist. Agnostism and Atheism aren't mutually exclusive. Nor are agnostism and theism. As an atheist, you can be either agnostic or gnostic. Similarly, as a theist, you can be either agnostic or gnostic. You can be one of four categories:

Gnostic Theist: You believe in God, and you know that there's a God.
Agnostic Theist: You believe in God, but you don't know if there's a God.
Agnostic Atheist:  You don't believe in God, but you don't know if there's a God. 
Gnostic Atheist: You don't believe in God, and you know that there is no God.

There is also an agnostic, agnostic, who hasn't form an opnion and their stand is they don't know.  My view allows for there to be someone who isn't a theist, but also isn't an atheist.  It would be the fifth category.  In short, the person doesn't have an opinion on the subject.  If one wanted to define everything as just theism or atheism, then you can do that, but I do believe there is a quantifiable category for the person who flat out just doesn't know, and won't say one way or the other.  I was just preferring to have it so that everything wasn't defined via whether or not the person is a theist, which is what your four categories do.

And I will do this, because knowing and believing are nearly inseparately connected, because under all systems of knowing is beliefs about things, or certain levels of trust.  It is just a matter of what one accepts as a valid measure for things.  I know there is a longing to have such a strong piece of information or facts or "truth" that anyone who said to care to accept truth will be forced to do it, but one would be hard pressed to find anything like this.

Under what I describe, you have belief and non-belief towards a lot of things, based upon the degree of confidence you have in that thing being true, real, existing etc... This can happen with not just God, but anything else, like UFOs, ghosts and other paranormal.  Some people can end up deciding they have no decision, and remain neutral.  They can say, flat out, they do not know either way, and claim to be without knowledge (agnostic) in that area.



http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+13&version=NIV

1 Corinthians 13
New International Version (NIV)
13 If I speak in the tongues[a] of men or of angels, but do not have love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal. 2 If I have the gift of prophecy and can fathom all mysteries and all knowledge, and if I have a faith that can move mountains, but do not have love, I am nothing. 3 If I give all I possess to the poor and give over my body to hardship that I may boast, but do not have love, I gain nothing.

4 Love is patient, love is kind. It does not envy, it does not boast, it is not proud. 5 It does not dishonor others, it is not self-seeking, it is not easily angered, it keeps no record of wrongs. 6 Love does not delight in evil but rejoices with the truth. 7 It always protects, always trusts, always hopes, always perseveres.

8 Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part, 10 but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears. 11 When I was a child, I talked like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child. When I became a man, I put the ways of childhood behind me. 12 For now we see only a reflection as in a mirror; then we shall see face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I am fully known.

13 And now these three remain: faith, hope and love. But the greatest of these is love.



Around the Network
pezus said:
"Deuteronomy 22:28-29
28 If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, 29 he shall pay her father fifty shekels[a] of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives."

Did you miss this?

In that culture he gained the legal obligation to take care of her.  He had to treat her as a wife, if he went and did that.  If you are going to comment on this, and put it out there, do you care to show what it was like in that culture and comment on what happened to a woman who was made to no longer be a virgin?  Please feel free to, since that verse interests you so much.



ninetailschris said:
Scoobes said:
ninetailschris said:
Jay520 said:
DaRev said:

Nope, truth is truth, there cannot be more than one truth, truth either agrees with truth or its not true or all the truth. You don't have to study every religion, pal, just study the true one. If you think the true one is, e.g. Islam, then go study that, which I'm sure if you did, WITH AN OPEN MIND you would run into some untruths. Christianity on the other is truth, study that WITH AN OPEN MIND, and I'm sure if you did you you will only find truth. Truth it is better to love your fellow man, truth!

Now, because Christianity is truth, there is no need study anything else, because you have already found the truth, so why look for it somewhere else? E.g if H2O = Water or E = mc2, why you going to look for that truth again, when you already found it?



Okay, a few questions.

1.) There are untrooths with Islam? How Do you know? Have you studied Islam to know if its true or not?

2.) If you have studied Islam, then what are the untrooths of Islam?

3.) I have studied Christianity with an open-mind and I think its false. Therefore, can I safely say Christianity is false?

4.) What if I study another religion with an open-mind and find that religion is true? How would I be able to know for sure?


1. The problem with Islam unlike The bIble is that it has things that directly go against  historal truths on certain events. For example, in islam it says Jesus didn't die on cross. This is historial proven to not be true by scholars and historians. A man of name Jesus Christ of Nazareth was in fact killed on cross from reports. we even know who was the person that killed him on the cross EXACTLY.

2. The problems is that Islam Scholars themselves will admit that they haven't done any real research into the origins of the Islam. PLUS it known that Islam leader Muhammad got his information on Jesus YEARS LATER from actual events. Muhammad also got his source from third hand person basically hear-say. 

To be fair, similar arguments can be made against Christianity. The bible as it currently is was collated in 325AD. There were many more texts that refered to Jesus but these were disregarded by a group of fallible humans with their own bias 325 years after he died. This is not even taking into account the material that may have been lost in translation. For instance, the virgin birth may not be as miraculous as orginally thought as the Hebrew word translated to "virgin" could also be used to mean "young woman".

The 4 gospels in the bible are also estimated to have been written 60-100 years after Jesus' death meaning a big gap in first hand knowledge.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_reliability_of_the_Acts_of_the_Apostles#Historicity

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_reliability_of_the_Gospels

Every Religious text has inconsistencies with historical and archaelogical consensus. Singling out Islam when the bible contains inconsistencies is just plain wrong.


60-100 years isn't hard to lose track with because it can easily be passed from one generation to the next. This is why scholars don't question is it reliable as people at the thing. The society at the time was a collectivist/low-context society they were train were rasied to never mess up on quoting and to be able to send the message for years. 60-100 years is very easy for the type of society it was. You're viewing them as your society were we can't remember anything and write everything down is common mistake with people who don't look into the societies.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lJpBKmeLW_Y&feature=plcp

^ Suggest you watch and try to absorb what I'm saying.

"

Every Religious text has inconsistencies with historical and archaelogical consensus. Singling out Islam when the bible contains inconsistencies is just plain wrong."

You just make a claim...but didn't give an example? I'm not going to agree to claim obviously so give me example in Christianity. I already know about others so don't bother with the Islams/Hindu/ etc because I can tell you why there not reliable as the bible.

 


They were in the link I gave you:

Acts 5:33-39 gives an account of speech by the 1st century Pharisee Gamaliel, in which he refers to two first century movements. One of these was led by Theudas (v 36) and after him another was led by Judas the Galilean (v 37). Josephus placed Judas at the Census of Quirinius of the year 6 and Theudas under the procurator Fadus[26] in 44-46. Assuming Acts refers to the same Theudas as Josephus, two problems emerge. First, the order of Judas and Theudas is reversed in Acts 5. Second, Theudas's movement comes after the time when Gamaliel is speaking.

In Bible scholarship, the sole reference to Theudas presents a problem of chronology. In Acts of the Apostles, Gamaliel, a member of the sanhedrin, defends the apostles by referring to Theudas:

"Men of Israel, be cautious in deciding what to do with these men. Some time ago, Theudas came forward, claiming to be somebody, and a number of men, about four hundred, joined him. But he was killed and his whole following was broken up and disappeared. After him came Judas the Galilean at the time of the census; he induced some people to revolt under his leadership, but he too perished and his whole following was scattered." (NEB, Acts 5:36-8)

The difficulty is that the rising of Theudas is here given as before that of Judas of Galilee, which is itself dated to the time of the taxation (c. 6-7 AD). Josephus, on the other hand, says that Theudas was 45 or 46, which is after Gamaliel is speaking, and long after Judas the Galilean.

There are several arguments put forward to solve this problem. The 18th century theologian John Gill wrote "Some think Josephus is mistaken in his chronology, and then all is right."[5] Another argument is that the author of the Book of Acts used Josephus as a source and made a mistake in a reading the text, taking a later reference to the execution of the "sons of Judas the Galilean" after the rebellion of Theudas as saying that the rebellion of Judas was later; however there is disagreement as to whether the author(s) of Luke used Josephus.[6] Other explanations are that he was referring to a different revolt by another Theudas, or that he mistakenly transposed the two names.[7]

Acts 2:41 and 4:4 - Peter's addresses

Acts 4:4 speaks of Peter addressing an audience, resulting in the number of Christian converts rising by 5,000 people. Professor of New Testament Robert M. Grant says "Luke evidently regarded himself as a historian, but many questions can be raised in regard to the reliability of his history […] His ‘statistics’ are impossible; Peter could not have addressed three thousand hearers [e.g. in Acts 2:41 without a microphone, and since the population of Jerusalem was about 25-30,000, Christians cannot have numbered five thousand [e.g. Acts 4:4]."[27]

Grant's estimate of the population of Jerusalem relied on an influential study by Jeremias in 1943.[28][29] However, Grant does not mention that Jeremias calculated a far higher population figure for festival seasons such as passover, at which he calculated Jerusalem would contain up to 125,000 pilgrims.[30] Furthermore, the lower estimate of Jeremias is significantly lower than the lowest of the moderate to high estimates made by Wilkinson in 1974 (70,398 under Herod the Great),[31] Broshi in 1976 (60,000),[32] Maier in 1976 (50,000, with three times that many during festival seasons),[33] and Levine in 2002 (60,000-70,000).[34] Accordingly, Cousland notes that "recent estimates of the population of Jerusalem suggest something in the neighbourhood of a hundred thousand".[35]

Estimates for the number of Christians in the Roman empire by the end of the 1st century range widely from 7,500,[36] to more than 50,000.[37][38]

Acts 6:9: The province of Cilicia

Acts 6:9 mentions the Province of Cilicia during a scene allegedly taking place in mid-30s AD. The Roman province by that name had been on hiatus from 27 BC and was re-established by Emperor Vespasian only in 72 AD.[39]

Acts 21:38: The sicarii and the Egyptian

In Acts 21:38, a Roman asks Paul if he was 'the Egyptian' who led a band of 'sicarii' (literally: 'dagger-men') into the desert. In both The Jewish Wars[40] and Antiquities of the Jews,[41] Josephus talks about Jewish nationalist rebels called sicarii directly prior to talking about The Egyptian leading some followers to the Mount of Olives. Richard Pervo believes that this demonstrates that Luke used Josephus as a source and mistakenly thought that the sicarii were followers of The Egyptian.[42][43] The hypothesis that Luke-Acts used Josephus as a source is rare.[citation needed]

Acts 10:1: Roman troops in Caesarea

Acts 10:1 speaks of a Roman Centurion called Cornelius belonging to the "Italian regiment" and stationed in Caesarea. Robert Grant claims that during the reign of Herod Agrippa, 41-44, no Roman troops were stationed in his territory.[44] Wedderburn likewise finds the narrative "historically suspect",[45] and in view of the lack of inscriptional and literary evidence corroborating Acts, historian de Blois suggests that the unit either did not exist or was a later unit which the author of Acts projected to an earlier time.[46]

Noting that the 'Italian regiment' is generally identified as cohors II Italica civium Romanorum, a unit whose presence in Judea is attested no earlier than 69 CE,[47] historian E Mary Smallwood observes that the events described from Acts 9:32 to chapter 11 may not be in chronological order with the rest of the chapter but actually take place after Agrippa's death in chapter 12, and that the "Italian regiment" may have been introduced to Caesarea as early as 44 CE.[48] Wedderburn notes this suggestion of chronological re-arrangement, along with the suggestion that Cornelius lived in Caesarea away from his unit.[49] Historians such as Bond,[50] Speidel,[51] and Saddington,[52] see no difficulty in the record of Acts 10:1.

Acts 15: The Council of Jerusalem

The description of the 'Apostolic Council' in Acts 15, generally considered the same event described in Galatians 2,[53] is considered by some scholars to be contradictory to the Galatians account.[54] The historicity of Luke's account has been challenged,[55][56][57] and was rejected completely by some scholars in the mid to late 20th century.[58] However, more recent scholarship inclines towards treating the Jerusalem Council and its rulings as a historical event,[59] though this is sometimes expressed with caution.[60]

Acts 24: Paul's trial

Paul's trial in Acts 24 has been described as 'incoherently presented'.[61][page needed]

Acts 15:16-18: James' speech

In Acts 15:16-18, James, the leader of the Christian Jews in Jerusalem, gives a speech where he quotes scriptures from the Greek Septuagint (Amos 9:11-12(Amos. Some[citation needed] believe this is incongruous with the portrait of James as a Jewish leader who would presumably speak Aramaic, not Greek. A possible explanation is that the Septuagint translation better made James's point about the inclusion of Gentiles as the people of God.[62] Dr. John Barnett stated that "Many of the Jews in Jesus' day used the Septuagint as their Bible".[63] Although Aramaic was a major language of the Ancient Near East, by Jesus's day Greek had been the lingua franca of the area for 300 years. It is also possible that James quoted Amos in Aramaic at the Jerusalem Council, but when Luke wrote it down he used the Septuagint translation since nearly all Christians outside Palestine used it as their bible.[citation needed]

 

Just from this small selection of examples we can see that even with a low context culture where oral information and communication should be highly detailed, inaccuracies (resulting from the writers experiences/bias or just gradual modification of second hand material/info with time) made it through.

Your assumption that lower context cultures must accrue and remember more information is just false. In the modern era the US is considered one of the lowest context cultures whilst Japan one of the highest. When it comes to recalling information accurately I'd give the nod to the Japanese. There are many other factors, education being one of them. Do you really think the people of that day were particularly well educated?



ninetailschris said:
pezus said:
"Deuteronomy 22:28-29
28 If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, 29 he shall pay her father fifty shekels[a] of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives."

Did you miss this?


What he quoted wasn't that so your point invailded.

The passages deal with two different issues.

But to answer this question.

First, you seem to think that is helping the rapist or screwing over the victum because she has to marry the rapist who raped. Your argument if we were talking modern times this would be great objection. But in OT days this was the best choice because she would no longer be regarded as marriageable and would therefore lose means of interdependent support. No one would marry her because she wasn't a virgin and therefor like previous stated she would be left to herself and mostly die. (note: there is nothing in the time as women fully supporting herself during those times because it would have been impossible.)In the passage we read "[He must] marry the girl, for he has [violated her]. [He can never] divorce her as long as he lives."  First,  we can see that the rapist is FORCED to marry the woman because he did in fact VIOLATE her and must support the women  FOREVER by never divorcing her. The woman/father/community leader at the time would have most likely demanded this happen because in this way the rapist would have been forced to support the woman and the woman would have financial support. Back in the OT times it wasn't about modern love and special feeling in your stomach it was about surviving and honor. This was a punishment to the man and is even phased as so.

Second,  with the father and the money related  to another ancient practice, the dowry. A girl who is married becomes part of a new family, which she goes on to support of her own means, and now relies upon for support; at the same time, her former family loses her support and assistance in daily survival, but gains nothing practical in return - hence the dowry.

 

This should answer the question.

 

 

 

So if a bloke really liked a girl, but neither she nor her family wanted the bloke, all he had to do was rape her and they could be married. I'm failing to see the punishment, especially considering that divorce back then was seen as reprehensible anyway and if you did divorce then you'd be shuned by the local community. 

It sounds more like the bloke has to marry the girl because, as a non-virgin, she wouldn't be able to marry anyone anyway so the bloke must. Not really much of a punishment if he desires her anyway. More like a punishment for the girl.



pezus said:

You misunderstand. I'm not here to convince anyone, and I'm not basing any 'evidence' on my local society. You said atheists were trying to go against the societal norms and I said that is certainly not true in my case. And that's like saying people who believe in Allah but live in America are only doing so to go against the grain...


You're not here to convince anyone of anything? Isn't that rather the purpose of debate and discussion?

Also, while maybe you haven't seen it to be the case, I don't know how much I can rely on your anecdotes given that you, yourself, are an atheist, giving you an evidently different perspective.

For Muslims in America, if it's a white person with Christian heritage, then I would indeed doubt their motives if they claim to believe in Allah. Atheists are like that; they're going against "tradition". It's not the same thing, though, since, as I said before, atheism does not inherently mean being rebellious, but my (very limited) experience has shown that atheists usually are. Meaning this is a specific thing against atheists, not a general "anyone who thinks differently is just going against the grain" argument.

Also, for the other point about my never having met calm atheists, that was hyperbole. If it hadn't mean, that would mean I'm indirectly calling you and others aggressive, which, even if I thought it were true, would be considered trolling. I'd never do that, :P.



 

“These are my principles; if you don’t like them, I have others.” – Groucho Marx

Scoobes said:
ninetailschris said:
Scoobes said:
ninetailschris said:
Jay520 said:
DaRev said:

Nope, truth is truth, there cannot be more than one truth, truth either agrees with truth or its not true or all the truth. You don't have to study every religion, pal, just study the true one. If you think the true one is, e.g. Islam, then go study that, which I'm sure if you did, WITH AN OPEN MIND you would run into some untruths. Christianity on the other is truth, study that WITH AN OPEN MIND, and I'm sure if you did you you will only find truth. Truth it is better to love your fellow man, truth!

Now, because Christianity is truth, there is no need study anything else, because you have already found the truth, so why look for it somewhere else? E.g if H2O = Water or E = mc2, why you going to look for that truth again, when you already found it?



Okay, a few questions.

1.) There are untrooths with Islam? How Do you know? Have you studied Islam to know if its true or not?

2.) If you have studied Islam, then what are the untrooths of Islam?

3.) I have studied Christianity with an open-mind and I think its false. Therefore, can I safely say Christianity is false?

4.) What if I study another religion with an open-mind and find that religion is true? How would I be able to know for sure?


1. The problem with Islam unlike The bIble is that it has things that directly go against  historal truths on certain events. For example, in islam it says Jesus didn't die on cross. This is historial proven to not be true by scholars and historians. A man of name Jesus Christ of Nazareth was in fact killed on cross from reports. we even know who was the person that killed him on the cross EXACTLY.

2. The problems is that Islam Scholars themselves will admit that they haven't done any real research into the origins of the Islam. PLUS it known that Islam leader Muhammad got his information on Jesus YEARS LATER from actual events. Muhammad also got his source from third hand person basically hear-say. 

To be fair, similar arguments can be made against Christianity. The bible as it currently is was collated in 325AD. There were many more texts that refered to Jesus but these were disregarded by a group of fallible humans with their own bias 325 years after he died. This is not even taking into account the material that may have been lost in translation. For instance, the virgin birth may not be as miraculous as orginally thought as the Hebrew word translated to "virgin" could also be used to mean "young woman".

The 4 gospels in the bible are also estimated to have been written 60-100 years after Jesus' death meaning a big gap in first hand knowledge.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_reliability_of_the_Acts_of_the_Apostles#Historicity

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_reliability_of_the_Gospels

Every Religious text has inconsistencies with historical and archaelogical consensus. Singling out Islam when the bible contains inconsistencies is just plain wrong.


60-100 years isn't hard to lose track with because it can easily be passed from one generation to the next. This is why scholars don't question is it reliable as people at the thing. The society at the time was a collectivist/low-context society they were train were rasied to never mess up on quoting and to be able to send the message for years. 60-100 years is very easy for the type of society it was. You're viewing them as your society were we can't remember anything and write everything down is common mistake with people who don't look into the societies.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lJpBKmeLW_Y&feature=plcp

^ Suggest you watch and try to absorb what I'm saying.

"

Every Religious text has inconsistencies with historical and archaelogical consensus. Singling out Islam when the bible contains inconsistencies is just plain wrong."

You just make a claim...but didn't give an example? I'm not going to agree to claim obviously so give me example in Christianity. I already know about others so don't bother with the Islams/Hindu/ etc because I can tell you why there not reliable as the bible.

 


They were in the link I gave you:

Acts 5:33-39 gives an account of speech by the 1st century Pharisee Gamaliel, in which he refers to two first century movements. One of these was led by Theudas (v 36) and after him another was led by Judas the Galilean (v 37). Josephus placed Judas at the Census of Quirinius of the year 6 and Theudas under the procurator Fadus[26] in 44-46. Assuming Acts refers to the same Theudas as Josephus, two problems emerge. First, the order of Judas and Theudas is reversed in Acts 5. Second, Theudas's movement comes after the time when Gamaliel is speaking.

In Bible scholarship, the sole reference to Theudas presents a problem of chronology. In Acts of the Apostles, Gamaliel, a member of the sanhedrin, defends the apostles by referring to Theudas:

"Men of Israel, be cautious in deciding what to do with these men. Some time ago, Theudas came forward, claiming to be somebody, and a number of men, about four hundred, joined him. But he was killed and his whole following was broken up and disappeared. After him came Judas the Galilean at the time of the census; he induced some people to revolt under his leadership, but he too perished and his whole following was scattered." (NEB, Acts 5:36-8)

The difficulty is that the rising of Theudas is here given as before that of Judas of Galilee, which is itself dated to the time of the taxation (c. 6-7 AD). Josephus, on the other hand, says that Theudas was 45 or 46, which is after Gamaliel is speaking, and long after Judas the Galilean.

There are several arguments put forward to solve this problem. The 18th century theologian John Gill wrote "Some think Josephus is mistaken in his chronology, and then all is right."[5] Another argument is that the author of the Book of Acts used Josephus as a source and made a mistake in a reading the text, taking a later reference to the execution of the "sons of Judas the Galilean" after the rebellion of Theudas as saying that the rebellion of Judas was later; however there is disagreement as to whether the author(s) of Luke used Josephus.[6] Other explanations are that he was referring to a different revolt by another Theudas, or that he mistakenly transposed the two names.[7]

Acts 2:41 and 4:4 - Peter's addresses

Acts 4:4 speaks of Peter addressing an audience, resulting in the number of Christian converts rising by 5,000 people. Professor of New Testament Robert M. Grant says "Luke evidently regarded himself as a historian, but many questions can be raised in regard to the reliability of his history […] His ‘statistics’ are impossible; Peter could not have addressed three thousand hearers [e.g. in Acts 2:41 without a microphone, and since the population of Jerusalem was about 25-30,000, Christians cannot have numbered five thousand [e.g. Acts 4:4]."[27]

Grant's estimate of the population of Jerusalem relied on an influential study by Jeremias in 1943.[28][29] However, Grant does not mention that Jeremias calculated a far higher population figure for festival seasons such as passover, at which he calculated Jerusalem would contain up to 125,000 pilgrims.[30] Furthermore, the lower estimate of Jeremias is significantly lower than the lowest of the moderate to high estimates made by Wilkinson in 1974 (70,398 under Herod the Great),[31] Broshi in 1976 (60,000),[32] Maier in 1976 (50,000, with three times that many during festival seasons),[33] and Levine in 2002 (60,000-70,000).[34] Accordingly, Cousland notes that "recent estimates of the population of Jerusalem suggest something in the neighbourhood of a hundred thousand".[35]

Estimates for the number of Christians in the Roman empire by the end of the 1st century range widely from 7,500,[36] to more than 50,000.[37][38]

Acts 6:9: The province of Cilicia

Acts 6:9 mentions the Province of Cilicia during a scene allegedly taking place in mid-30s AD. The Roman province by that name had been on hiatus from 27 BC and was re-established by Emperor Vespasian only in 72 AD.[39]

Acts 21:38: The sicarii and the Egyptian

In Acts 21:38, a Roman asks Paul if he was 'the Egyptian' who led a band of 'sicarii' (literally: 'dagger-men') into the desert. In both The Jewish Wars[40] and Antiquities of the Jews,[41] Josephus talks about Jewish nationalist rebels called sicarii directly prior to talking about The Egyptian leading some followers to the Mount of Olives. Richard Pervo believes that this demonstrates that Luke used Josephus as a source and mistakenly thought that the sicarii were followers of The Egyptian.[42][43] The hypothesis that Luke-Acts used Josephus as a source is rare.[citation needed]

Acts 10:1: Roman troops in Caesarea

Acts 10:1 speaks of a Roman Centurion called Cornelius belonging to the "Italian regiment" and stationed in Caesarea. Robert Grant claims that during the reign of Herod Agrippa, 41-44, no Roman troops were stationed in his territory.[44] Wedderburn likewise finds the narrative "historically suspect",[45] and in view of the lack of inscriptional and literary evidence corroborating Acts, historian de Blois suggests that the unit either did not exist or was a later unit which the author of Acts projected to an earlier time.[46]

Noting that the 'Italian regiment' is generally identified as cohors II Italica civium Romanorum, a unit whose presence in Judea is attested no earlier than 69 CE,[47] historian E Mary Smallwood observes that the events described from Acts 9:32 to chapter 11 may not be in chronological order with the rest of the chapter but actually take place after Agrippa's death in chapter 12, and that the "Italian regiment" may have been introduced to Caesarea as early as 44 CE.[48] Wedderburn notes this suggestion of chronological re-arrangement, along with the suggestion that Cornelius lived in Caesarea away from his unit.[49] Historians such as Bond,[50] Speidel,[51] and Saddington,[52] see no difficulty in the record of Acts 10:1.

Acts 15: The Council of Jerusalem

The description of the 'Apostolic Council' in Acts 15, generally considered the same event described in Galatians 2,[53] is considered by some scholars to be contradictory to the Galatians account.[54] The historicity of Luke's account has been challenged,[55][56][57] and was rejected completely by some scholars in the mid to late 20th century.[58] However, more recent scholarship inclines towards treating the Jerusalem Council and its rulings as a historical event,[59] though this is sometimes expressed with caution.[60]

Acts 24: Paul's trial

Paul's trial in Acts 24 has been described as 'incoherently presented'.[61][page needed]

Acts 15:16-18: James' speech

In Acts 15:16-18, James, the leader of the Christian Jews in Jerusalem, gives a speech where he quotes scriptures from the Greek Septuagint (Amos 9:11-12(Amos. Some[citation needed] believe this is incongruous with the portrait of James as a Jewish leader who would presumably speak Aramaic, not Greek. A possible explanation is that the Septuagint translation better made James's point about the inclusion of Gentiles as the people of God.[62] Dr. John Barnett stated that "Many of the Jews in Jesus' day used the Septuagint as their Bible".[63] Although Aramaic was a major language of the Ancient Near East, by Jesus's day Greek had been the lingua franca of the area for 300 years. It is also possible that James quoted Amos in Aramaic at the Jerusalem Council, but when Luke wrote it down he used the Septuagint translation since nearly all Christians outside Palestine used it as their bible.[citation needed]

 

Just from this small selection of examples we can see that even with a low context culture where oral information and communication should be highly detailed, inaccuracies (resulting from the writers experiences/bias or just gradual modification of second hand material/info with time) made it through.

Your assumption that lower context cultures must accrue and remember more information is just false. In the modern era the US is considered one of the lowest context cultures whilst Japan one of the highest. When it comes to recalling information accurately I'd give the nod to the Japanese. There are many other factors, education being one of them. Do you really think the people of that day were particularly well educated?


"Acts 5:33-39: Theudas"

Before I respond to some or all let me explain why didn't respond to wiki link. Wiki is unreliable and can be edit by anyone. You don't to know what your talking about to post on wiki and when I clicked it had almost no sources or links. Just passage and how they feel it's a contradiction.

"This claim has been circulated on several Web sites. The people who make this claim, whether they realize it or not, are assuming that there can only be one person named Theudas, when in fact there might have been more than one person with that name. In other words, Luke, the author of the book of Acts, and Josephus, a first century historian, could simply be talking about two different people named Theudas.

 

Luke's Theudas sounds like a religious leader who had a following of about 400 people. Josephus' Theudas sounds like a different person, a magician who claimed to be a prophet and who had a large following, one that was large enough to provoke a deadly confrontation from the government. For these and other reasons, many scholars and writers believe that Luke and Josephus are talking about two different people with the same name."

Source:http://www.aboutbibleprophecy.com/luke-gamaliel-theudas-judas-galilean.htm

Was going to link to rationalchristianity but this seem to fit the bill.

"Acts 2:41 and 4:4"

http://bible.cc/acts/4-4.htm

" However, many of those [who heard] the word believed; and the number of the men came to be about five thousand ."

The passage refers to the amount it became. Not saying he is addressing 5,000 people.

 What got me about one of the objections were that it said....."Peter couldn't address them by himself...." umm he didn't. Acts 4:1 makes a point that Peter was not the only speaker.

Acts 3: Peter performs a miracle healing someone who never could walk. Then after that  a crowd gathered before Peter and John and the two Apostles began preaching. So... wait they couldn't even get the number of people speaking? During this time there is no mentioning of crowd size. After that Acts 4:1-3, Peter and John are arrested after preaching about the resurrection of Jesus. Then Acts 4:4 then says: "However, many of those who heard the word believed; and the number of the men came to be about five thousand" (Acts 4:4, NIV). There were previous miracles so it would make sense if it were refering to ALL of the past events like what it is telling us. But again I showed how wiki couldn't even get the basic facts right. Who heard is means in total not at one event.

"Acts 6:9: The province of Cilicia"

That area, which was a south coastal region of Asia Minor, had been called Cilicia for many centuries, even before the existence of the Roman Empire. And the area continued to be called Cilicia long after the collapse of the Roman Empire.

 

When Luke refers to the area in Acts 6:9, he is not making a claim as to the provincial status of the area in regards to the Roman Empire, he is merely directly his reader to the geographical area that was commonly called Cilicia.

Some of these are outright laughable.

Acts 24: Paul's trial

Paul's trial in Acts 24 has been described as 'incoherently presented'.[61][page needed]

^ Are you serious? One sentence and no source at all or even PAGE? WHAT?  We just suppose to take his work for it with no reasoning?

Who wrote this articles a 15 year old ? Some of these articles only like 2-3 sentences with no real detail. Some of them just flat out ignore what is said in THE PASSAGES they mention!

Relationship to the Gospel of Luke

Since Acts is generally regarded as a continuation of the Gospel of Luke, problems with the historical reliability of the Gospel are also used to question the historical reliability of Acts.

No.....link....just refering to problem without addressing the problem.......this article can't be serious.  This is like me saying  x is wrong because something is wrong with y. WHAT is wrong with y? How do you even argue against this?

Clearly this person should show that how unreliable WIKI is lol. This guy looks like he put no effort in this.

There is like two things I didn't address but at this point they don't even look I need to.

"Just from this small selection of examples we can see that even with a low context culture where oral information and communication should be highly detailed, inaccuracies (resulting from the writers experiences/bias or just gradual modification of second hand material/info with time) made it through."

Horrible small selection...just horrible. No we didn't... see the any problems with low context we see a problem of BAD reserach. One guy said there wasn't anyone speaking beside Peter YET in the same passage they talk about John preaching BY NAME. "They were greatly disturbed because the [apostle(s) were teaching the people], proclaiming in Jesus the resurrection of the dead"

They say 4:2 that there were apostles that were teaching the people. THIS WAS ONLY TWO SENTENCES FROM 4.4 it was in 4.2. How do you miss that?  I don't even know what did they even got right in one part.

This is not worst then the other guy on here with the killzone  avater but this made me question why I was bothering with this wiki?

-------------------

Btw I made typo in my last response to you the Old testiment is a HIGH context society not low. That was mistake on my part.

http://vridar.wordpress.com/2012/08/24/high-low-context-cultures-catching-up-with-the-fundamentals/

Most of the modern world is low-context and Old testiment is high I made a mistake and switched the too.

"Your assumption that lower context cultures must accrue and remember more information is just false. In the modern era the US is considered one of the lowest context cultures whilst Japan one of the highest."

Will ignore because I switched the two by accident from all of responding. Since this doesn't relate to what I said because of this I will move on from point.

"There are many other factors, education being one of them. Do you really think the people of that day were particularly well educated?"

Don't need to know how to read or write to be good at HIGH context society. Actual most HIGH context societies aren't educated that well. Most are unable to write so there forced to act like a high context society.

The wordpress link is a good link on the society with High Context during Jesus time.

 

 



"Excuse me sir, I see you have a weapon. Why don't you put it down and let's settle this like gentlemen"  ~ max