o_O.Q said:
JWeinCom said:
so... yeah... you've contradicted your earlier claim that the notion that some behaviors are different from others is merely opinion... the silly word play here doesn't change my point
My insistence that you don't change words is not silly word play. I don't see how this contradicts anything else I said.
its the closest thing to objectivity man can achieve so yes for all intents and purposes it is objective, otherwise you might as well claim there's no objective reality and that using the scientific method is a waste of time
Even if it's the closest we can get to objective, it is nowhere near objective. It's pretty easy to see that there are thousands if not millions of different interpretations on what's "best" for man among the religious and the secular. That is not what you get out of an objective system.
I have no idea what objective reality has to do with this. We can have objective reality without objective morality.
in this context they are one and the same, if you have a differing understanding of history then please share... maybe you'll be able to rewrite the history books
No, they're different words. Primary would be an objective term and I wouldn't argue with it. Best is a subjective term that would require evidence. It's your claim, the burden of proof is yours.
as i said before as is the case with all manmade systems it degenerates with time but that does not mean that the core values are incorrect as you yourself have acknowledged above when you agreed that being fit is better than being unfit
I did not agree with that at all. There are plenty of people who think the joy they get from food and the things they could do instead of going to the gym is worth being unfit. There are people who are sexually attracted to the obese. There is a writer who was molested as a child, and is now intentionally out of shape in a conscious effort to be unattractive to men. For her, avoiding male sexual attention is worth any health risks of being unfit. A PHD student may skip going to the gym because working on her dissertation is more important then the health value of exercising. Someone who needs the money may eat less healthful foods because they are cheaper. Plenty of women (and some men too) are underweight because they value being thin over being fit. A father may skip workouts to spend more time with his children.
Being fit is better than being unfit only if we hold health to be the most important value. There are plenty of situations where other values take precedence, and it is better to be unfit or less fit. And this is still not a moral issue.
An objective system would not degenerate at all.
that's true but does not mean that its not a system that can and has been used successfully... all successful civilisations that we know of have used this process - Egypt, Mesopothamia, Rome, Greece etc etc etc
Ok. So, you agree that this is not objective morality? If so, I guess we're finished. Whether or not it's a good system is a whole other argument that I'd rather not get into.
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"My insistence that you don't change words is not silly word play. I don't see how this contradicts anything else I said. "
its silly word play and a contradiction because you have conceded that some behaviors are objectively better than others (my mistake it appears you haven't, you just resorted to trying to argue that being unfit can be better than being fit apparently)
"Even if it's the closest we can get to objective, it is nowhere near objective."
so... therefore, you are claiming that objective reality does not exist
if you are dismissing whatever methods we have devised to be as close as possible to objectivity is that not the same as saying that objectivity is not possible?
what about the scientific method? is that nowhere near objective also? ( well it has to be since its the same thing )
"I have no idea what objective reality has to do with this. We can have objective reality without objective morality."
the methods we use to determine both (repetitive observations over a long period of time) are the same
i'm serously curious with regards to whether you consider our scientific experimentation to be objective and why if you do, that should be interesting
"Best is a subjective term that would require evidence. It's your claim, the burden of proof is yours."
as i said the proof is history and all of the civilisations that reached the height of prosperity with the aid of moral systems involving the concepts of gods : Egypt, Mesopothamia, Rome, Greece etc etc etc
every single successful civilisation we have known about where mankind flourished had god or gods at its center
those with humanism at their core such as the soviet union resulted only in suffering
"I did not agree with that at all..."
lol i never thought i'd see someone try to argue that being unfit can be better than being fit... its interesting i suppose
so how far are you willing to take this? are you willing to claim that all values are subjective and therefore no state of being is better than another state of being? (or in other words a dismissal of objectivity)
"Ok. So, you agree that this is not objective morality?"
um... i just explained this... to reiterate, the method of communication for a message can deteriorate while the message itself still retains its value
i'd just like to add as an aside that its quite interesting that some of the same people i see here rallying aggressively against the idea of objective morality will debate about how bad someone(like trump) is for their behaviors in other threads... its a bizarre contradiction but interesting at least
if its all subjective... how can you assess the behavior of other people?
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so... therefore, you are claiming that objective reality does not exist if you are dismissing whatever methods we have devised to be as close as possible to objectivity is that not the same as saying that objectivity is not possible?
what about the scientific method? is that nowhere near objective also? ( well it has to be since its the same thing )
No. I was claiming that it has not been demonstrated that objective morality exists. If the best method we've devised doesn't get us there, that either means it doesn't exist, or our methods are flawed.
the methods we use to determine both (repetitive observations over a long period of time) are the same
i'm serously curious with regards to whether you consider our scientific experimentation to be objective and why if you do, that should be interesting
It depends what you mean. If the studies are done properly, the data an experiment yields should be objective. Then that data has to be interpreted. The interpretation is always going to have some degree of subjectivity (except in hard sciences I really don't know much about them).
Scientists with the same pool of data can (and do) create entirely different models to explain it.
as i said the proof is history and all of the civilisations that reached the height of prosperity with the aid of moral systems involving the concepts of gods : Egypt, Mesopothamia, Rome, Greece etc etc etc
every single successful civilisation we have known about where mankind flourished had god or gods at its center
those with humanism at their core such as the soviet union resulted only in suffering
There has never been a war between two countries that have a McDonalds in their borders. Does that mean McDonalds is responsible for peace? Correlation does not mean causation. If successful societies have had religion, that does not mean religion caused it. Especially considering that most of the shitty societies also had religion.
Cambodia, Rwanda, Ethiopia, Afghanistan, Syria, Bangledesh, Niger, The Congo, and the Phillipines are states that have religion and are awful in terms of human rights and quality of life. Sweeden, Denmark, Israel, Canada, UK, Australia, and Japan are mostly secular countries that are doing very well in terms of human rights and quality of life. So, it's quite possible for a society to thrive without religious morality.
So, there's a lot more work to be done if you want to claim religion is responsible for the success of those states.
um... i just explained this... to reiterate, the method of communication for a message can deteriorate while the message itself still retains its value
A message only has value if it can be communicated.
Going back to your example, lets say you say it to me a mile away. As I head back to you, you are mauled by a bear. Your toungue is ripped out, your eyes are plucked out, and your body is completely and totally paralyzed. You have absolutely no way to communicate the message.
What is the value of your message now to anyone who is not you? How can anyone even claim the message exists? Likewise, if nobody can demonstrate or communicate objective morality, how can we claim it exists?
i'd just like to add as an aside that its quite interesting that some of the same people i see here rallying aggressively against the idea of objective morality will debate about how bad someone(like trump) is for their behaviors in other threads... its a bizarre contradiction but interesting at least
if its all subjective... how can you assess the behavior of other people?
By subjective criteria. We look at the data and come to the best supported ideas about the best way for a president to act. And we judge based on that. And since it's subjective, we wind up with people having differing opinions.