ethomaz said:
Because the % of sales ration variates in case to case. Exemple: A (40%), B (10%), C (15%), D (15%), E (20%) = Case of dominance. A (50%) B (40%), C (5%), D (3%), E (2%) = No dominance. If it is a two product scenario... the dominance can be defined by: "A company, brand, product, or service that has a combined market share exceeding 60% most probably has market power and market dominance." So if you think about two players you have PS (49%) and Xbox (42%) and a cleary case of non dominance. But when you add the fact there are 5 players: PS4 (42%), XB1 (30%), 360 (12%), PC (9%), PS3 (6%) You start to see some kind of dominance and it is more evident when 360 was the dominated console until a year ago. Yeap I used the DA:I example because it is a subjective case of dominance... so if you can understand this case then you will see why the others case are cleary objective dominances: Far Cry 4 GTA V (this case it missed by 2% the 60% of the market) |
No again, this is _leading_, not dominating. You defined it with the above number and from then on you were basing your arguments on this arbitrary number to reversely make your domination statement fitting. Dominating means you have full control and there is close to no competition even existing.
To be clear: PS4 is selling better and so do the games but right now we aren't even close to a domination, we instead have a tough fighting competition between 2 companies. This wouldn't be possible if PS4 was dominating.