ninetailschris said: Before I post let say don't shock if I don't reply for while or take awhile as I'm going to college and college will come first no matter what. NOW TO BEGIN! "About the word 'violate' In the context of raping I think this is the definition of 'violate' being used: to molest sexually, especially to rape. So yeah, it's more likely that 'violate' means raping rather than 'commiting a crime.' Of the many definitions of 'violate', you have to assume it's talking about committing a crime. but you don't have to assume that 'violating' means raping. Since it makes sense." Violate has negative term to it. And like I said before when we fuse the violate with the man having to pay for the father and now support the wife. This is clear picture of a crime taking place. The act of the man being forced to marry the woman which is said. This is saying ok because of x you have y which has rules and laws go. If you drink and drive you will pay a fine. <- This tells us ok someone did something wrong here not they give away tickets for free(Crime-> Punishment). This basic context clues. The bible talks about not causing trouble within your own group and has laws against violience. This would have gone with violence. Your argument is one from slience just because someone doesn't out right say don't x doesn't mean he does want you to do something or it's legal. For example, you are no suppose to hurt anyone person without justifable cause in the Bible. Someone could make an argument well God didn't say x therefor he is ok with it when it already be put into a group of a general law of don't hurt someone with out justifable reasons. This is common sense. To add to more of a problem of your argument. 1.Harming people in the society is illegal without good reason(self-defense/etc) and sex is suppose to be honorable thing to God and the persons who are marriaged. Both were illegal if you are opposite. 2. Rape is goes against both of these. Obvivously this was crime. But we can ADD more to it and see how it was common sense and the law was to warn others of no doing this action. Was the man given a punishment. YES. He had to pay the father (fine) and support the woman forever without choice. This is a legal action. Therefor this was crime. This isn't even a question. "Exodus 20:14 You shall not commit adultery." If he chose to date someone else he would be punished even more. The man would be forced to change his act fast because if he tried it again he would be put death because of adultery or more labor(depending on the crime). So, when doing basic context clues and how passages interact with each and not reading one line and thinking we know everything we can see that. This was legal action against a man and that rape was illegal because it goes against God view on sex being between a marriage couple. Rape by defintion goes aginst the law of being marriage before having sex therefor you have no argument. Plus there are laws about harming family members of a man (father) and the man would be killed if he failed. This is to much of a case to countered.
Deuteronomy 24:5If a man has recently married, he must not be sent to war or have any other duty laid on him. For one year he is to be free to stay at home and bring happiness to the wife he has married.
An actual law in the bible which shows RESPECT to the woman as the woman is suppose to be respected. Obliviously bring happiness would would not to rape her again as he would be punished with probably more labor or some other program I can't think at the moment.
Hebrews 13:4-7Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will [judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral]. Keep your lives free from the love of money and be content with what you have, because God has said, "Never will I leave you; never will I forsake you." So we say with confidence, "The Lord is my helper; I will not be afraid. What can man do to me?" Remember your leaders, who spoke the word of God to you. Consider the outcome of their way of life and imitate their faith.
That's right the adulterer and ALL the sexually immoral which would be rape as it goes against the marriage and sex. It was immoral to have sex without being marriaged. This is very close to saying out loud don't rape it's illegal.
Colossians 3:18-19Wives, submit to your husbands, as is fitting in the Lord. Husbands, love your wives and do not be [harsh with them.
Adding more to what I said before. adding to context nuff said here. Adding to don't HARM your wife and could to be expanded to just don't hurt women in general.
Just in case you try avoiding this.
Harsh.
1. having a coarse uneven surface that is rough or unpleasant to the touch
2
a : causing a disagreeable or painful sensory reaction :irritating
b : physically discomforting : painful
"Uhhm no. According to Christians, the bible teaches you exactly how to live your life. Nothing is up to a person's common sense. If common sense was a factor, then it becomes based upon a person's subjective feelings. If it becomes based upon a person's subjective feelings, then morals become subjective. That goes against the Christian code that the Bible teaches you exactly how to live your life. If the Bible doesn't say something is wrong, then Christians have no justification for saying it's wrong."
Umm according the Bible which was for Devolt followers of the time who could refer to passages like this to the normal followers. The bible was made for the devote followers to teach the ones that were not studing everyday the bible. They were the scholars of the day not some random guy who read the bible once and knew nothing of the contexts. This should be obvious to you because the bible is made in a way in assumes to you know the contexts(society,communication, etc). This why you make mistakes is because you assume the bible was written for the average American hen it was really amn for a scholar to teach the average American. The bible was only arounf to those that were scholars or devotes of the time and was only mass printed during King James printing. You assumptions show you don't understand at all the history of bible you have only a generalized idea from a public view not historial view.
On the point of common sense is that it was common sense based on numerous passages that hinted at it and would be pointed out by the society of the time or devote follower at the time who would point it to you, the context and understanding of each passage. In high context society they take that for granted things that are commonly know and assume you already know because your in the society. A scholar in today could tell how the society was and is ...there are even books on it.
You're showing that you have a very low research view of how the bible is supposed to be seen as and only have a popularized one. There is nothing subjective of what I speak of anyone that facts of how the society ran and how passages tell you if you read everything and see how it became obvious.
"You are right. Raping was disapproved in society. That was never my point. Was raping disapproved in the bible? No. Therefore, you don't know how God felt about rape. You just know he mentioned it, and said what to do afterwards. He didn't say it was morally wrong or right."
I think I covered this with the first response and passages. It's not even debatable was it not wrong at this point. Goes against not harming a woman and sex with marriage. If you can't add one and one to see that it was obvious to them because they were told both.
"If there really are morally wrong actions that are not explicitely stated in the bible (which you are suggesting)...then the bible doesn't sound like a well crafted model for living your life."
What I said was it doesn't say in text "You shall not rape woman" but it tells you in passages and other laws that it was a obvious crime.
God didn't need to tell them thou shall not rape your father/sister/mother/your child/pet goat/a rock because it was obvious with laws against in other passages.
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See my latest post in this thread (not inluding this one)