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Ka-pi96 said:
Barozi said:

Well to me they are.

I see no reason to count the population of random cities that have nothing to do with one another, other than being somewhat in the vicinity and then attribute them to the biggest city in that area (which in this case would be San Jose and not San Francisco). Call it the San Francisco Bay Area and everything is fine.

Cities are legal entities with explicit limits, metropolitan areas are just a concept and can change depending on the definition at any given time.

There's a bit of an issue with that though. London for example. The legal "city" has a population of less than 10k people.

That's tiny! And would actually mean my home town (12k people) is bigger than London. I'm sure nobody would claim that though. So if you're taking the whole metro area into account for places like London, why not other places too?

Yeah it doesn't work like that for every city but for most. I mentioned much earlier the example of Brussels which is similar to London in that regard.

However, Greater London (population of 8.9m) is an administrative region a thus a legal entitiy with explicit limits while the London metropolitan area (population of 14.4m) or the Greater London Built-up Area (population of 9.8m in 2011) are not.
Within Greater London, all districts around the city of London (even the City of Westminster) are London Boroughs, so it's pretty obvious that they belong together.