d21lewis said:
Could it be considered "theft of services"? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theft_of_services?wprov=sfla1 |
Did you even read the wiki article you posted?
Copying data from someone is not a service. Theft of services is agreeing to the services of someone in some type of transaction and not paying for it. It's like if you agree to pay someone $50 to mow your lawn and then decide not to pay that person. You stole their services by not paying.
Again, what on earth does this have to do with the right to copy data?
Edit: Because I feel like beating a dead horse:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copyright_infringement
"Copyright holders frequently refer to copyright infringement as theft. In copyright law, infringement does not refer to theft of physical objects that take away the owner's possession, but an instance where a person exercises one of the exclusive rights of the copyright holder without authorization. Courts have distinguished between copyright infringement and theft. For instance, the United States Supreme Court held in Dowling v. United States (1985) that bootleg phonorecords did not constitute stolen property. Instead,
"interference with copyright does not easily equate with theft, conversion, or fraud. The Copyright Act even employs a separate term of art to define one who misappropriates a copyright: '[...] an infringer of the copyright.'""
(emphasis mine)









