By using this site, you agree to our Privacy Policy and our Terms of Use. Close

Forums - General Discussion - Should probability invalidate responsibility?

 

Should probability invalidate accountability?

Yes 8 23.53%
 
No 26 76.47%
 
Total:34
Ponyless said:
ps3-sales! said:
Jay520 said:
ps3-sales! said:

This is possibly the great console failure anolagy I've ever seen. Bravo to you sir.

You bring up a great point. By logic alone, probability should not affect accountability. Unfortunately, especially for most electronics, small failure rate is universally accepted as the norm. Should it be accepted? No. But, nonetheless the consumer does accept it.


Actually, this wasn't meant to be an analogy for electronics. It involves something else, something we may or may not agree with. I haven't seen enough of your posts, but I'm going to assume you would disagree with me since most men probably do.


What if I were to say I'm not a man?

But seriously tell me. My curiousity is literally exploding right now.

If you're fucking a girl and the condom breaks, even though there was only a 1 percent chance of it breaking, should you still be held accountable for the child if the woman chooses not to get an abortion? That was his point.

If this truly was his point, then the analogy is inaccurate.

You took necessary precaution to avoid impregnating the female in the form of the condom. The baker takes no precautions at all. He simply spews his seed and hopes for the best.



Around the Network

Better just give the customer two cakes for the price of one to be safe.



YouKnow said:

If this truly was his point, then the analogy is inaccurate.

You took necessary precaution to avoid impregnating the female in the form of the condom. The baker takes no precautions at all. He simply spews his seed and hopes for the best.


I say it's the precaution they took was the same, based purely on the statistics of their circumstances.

- When the man chooses to have sex with a condom, there is a 1% chance of undesired consequences.
- When the baker sells the cake, there is a 1% chance of undesired consequences.

So, the precaution they took - based on the probability of undesired consequences - were of equal effectiveness.

You might argue that the baker did not take enough precaution. You might say that he should have acted in a way where there was zero chance of undesired consequences - not selling the cake. But the same could be said for the man: he should have acted in a way where there was zero chance of undesired consequences - not having sex. 

The fact that both chose a decision that allowed similar possibility of undesired consequences, even though they both could have eliminated the possibility of undesired consequences, means the responsibility should be the same. One could make the argument that both took insufficient precaution.



the_dengle said:

Better just give the customer two cakes for the price of one to be safe.

That's actually not a bad idea. Double wrap if you want to avoid pregnancy and your chances go down from 1% to 0.01%.



I enjoyed reading your op. But I need to know what it is meant to be analogous to before making any type proper statement.

The statement, "Should probability invalidate responsibility?" can have different answers depending on the context.

speak up ;)

 

EDIT: Actually I see it has been discussed quite thoroughly. Nevermind.



Around the Network
the_dengle said:

Better just give the customer two cakes for the price of one to be safe.


Nice. I laughed at this post much louder than I probably should have.



Jay520 said:

1. It is the same thing. Having sex (or selling the cake), he knows there is a 1% chance of his condom failing (or selling a bad cake) since no condom is guaranteed to be perfect; therefore, he knows that there is a 1% that there will be undesired consequences (same for the baker). If he still chooses to have sex (sell the cake), then he should still be responsible for the very unlikely consequences. That was my point. I don't think the knowledge of the partner/customer matters as it relates to the responsibility of the male/baker. 

2. I don't see what the existence or lack of a transaction this has to do with the baker/male being responsible for the consequences of their actions.

3. Assume the baker did not manufacturer the cake, so it can be equivalent. The baker would still be responsible for whatever happens. So it doesn’t really matter if the male/baker manufactured the condom/cake. 

I don't see why the responsibility is different.

In the end, none of the above really matters since it looks like you agree with me. You state "if both sexual partners know that the condom could break, and both choose to go ahead with the sexual activity, then the responsibility should be exactly the same as if both chose to have sexual activity without a condom." However, everyone knows (or should know) that a condom could break; none are perfect. So I assume you must agree with the fact responsibility from protected sex (under any sex) is the same as the responsibility from unprotected sex. This was my point.

As I pointed out, the primary difference is that the partner is also aware of the 1% chance of failure, and thus is equally culpable for deciding to go through with the act (assuming no rape takes place).

Let me use the analogy to make my point - if the baker knowingly sells a cake that has a 1% chance of causing severe illness, without first informing the customer, then the baker is wholly liable for the result, and assumes all responsibility for that result, should it occur. However, if the baker informs the customer of the risks, and the customer willingly goes through with the purchase, the baker is no longer responsible - the customer is the one that made the decision as to whether or not to buy it, and thus the burden lies with the customer.

In the case of sex, both partners are capable of doing things to prevent certain results. Responsibility depends on the exact circumstances. For instance (a heterosexual instance), if the guy wears a condom, the girl is not on the pill, the condom breaks, and the guy pushes for the girl to get the morning-after pill, and the girl refuses (and refuses abortion later, too), then the responsibility typically lies solely on the girl, as the guy did everything in his power to prevent the pregnancy, while the girl did nothing to prevent it. On the other hand, the guy may be even more culpable than the girl in other circumstances. It's easy to get caught up in dichotomous thinking... but things aren't that simple. Responsibility depends on the details, not the probabilities.



Aielyn said:

As I pointed out, the primary difference is that the partner is also aware of the 1% chance of failure, and thus is equally culpable for deciding to go through with the act (assuming no rape takes place).

1. Let me use the analogy to make my point - if the baker knowingly sells a cake that has a 1% chance of causing severe illness, without first informing the customer, then the baker is wholly liable for the result, and assumes all responsibility for that result, should it occur. However, if the baker informs the customer of the risks, and the customer willingly goes through with the purchase, the baker is no longer responsible - the customer is the one that made the decision as to whether or not to buy it, and thus the burden lies with the customer.

2. In the case of sex, both partners are capable of doing things to prevent certain results. Responsibility depends on the exact circumstances. For instance (a heterosexual instance), if the guy wears a condom, the girl is not on the pill, the condom breaks, and the guy pushes for the girl to get the morning-after pill, and the girl refuses (and refuses abortion later, too), then the responsibility typically lies solely on the girl, as the guy did everything in his power to prevent the pregnancy, while the girl did nothing to prevent it. On the other hand, the guy may be even more culpable than the girl in other circumstances. It's easy to get caught up in dichotomous thinking... but things aren't that simple. Responsibility depends on the details, not the probabilities.

i agree that both partners are equally responsible if they both consent to sex.

1. Okay, I see your point here. Although I'm not sure if the law agrees with you. I'm not sure about selling potentially unsafe food, even if you inform the customers. I would imagine that's illegal. As for the morality, I agree that the owner is zero percent responsible if the customer is informed.

2. Even under that scenario, the man should still be responsible (along with the woman) because he still chose to have sex. He did not do everything in his power to prevent pregnancy - that would require not having sex at all. As for the varying degrees of their responsibility, yes, that would be dependent upon the details. But, under any consensual circumstances, both parties must ultimately face some accountability.



And this is why we came up with the idea of insurance and food regulations for bakeries, cuisines, and fast food restaurants.