sundin13 on 21 February 2022
| RolStoppable said: Still, your study uses per capita figures for its mortality rates and when the same method is applied to crime incidents, then involvement of black people should also be around three times higher per capita than it is for white people. Or isn't that the case? |
My post was literally a response to that idea.
tl;dr: If you only look at violent crime rates by race, you may be led to the assumption that this is a good alternate explanation of racially disparate police violence, however this fails to be a robust hypothesis because it does not correlate well as soon as you start breaking down the data (for example by comparing levels of police violence to historical violent crime rates).
