Aeolus451 said:
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Until white people are instutionally oppressed, given less opportunity due to their race, profiled more by police departments, etc etc (pretty much, a reduction in power as a class), then there is no "reverse racism". Prejudice happens, yes. But it's not "reverse racism". Firstly, because racism is racism. To give white people a "special" form of racism called "reverse racism" is just bolstering their already privileged status. If a black person is prejudiced against a Hispanic "oh, he's just racist against Mexicans". If he's prejudiced against Arabs "oh, he's just racist against Arabs". But if he's prejudiced against a white person, it's "reverse racism"? Giving white people their own classification for racism makes it seem like it's "worse" for them, which isn't true.
Secondly, scale. OP mentions if a black person says something about whites, it just gets laughed at. But if a white person says something about blacks, it gets called racist. There is technically a double standard here, but think about historical context here. "But when they say it....." wouldn't be a thing if there wasn't 400 years of history of black people being 3rd class citizens (only recently being considered 2nd class citizens, and finally "equals" in the last few decades). A few black people saying something about white people, and what happens? Nothing. Black people across the country, though, get jobs less if their name is "black", for example, even if the credentials are there. Are these really "reverses" of each other? White people get made fun of, of have disparaging things said about them; black people's livelihoods are lessened by the mere fact that they're black. What's "reverse" about that. The scale of the "racism" isn't equal on both sides.
I know it just sounds like semantics, but it really isn't. Terminology matters, in this instance








