Christianity is Anti-Hatred of People or Groups of People

[Dr.Henry_Killinger]

RadiantDanceMachine said:

Dr.Henry_Killinger said:

Thing is your entire claim is based on the occurrence of the word hate in the Old testament. Which makes zero sense because you are literally taking words out of context https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fallacy_of_quoting_out_of_context. I was just showing, even in your flawed reasoning, using hate as a word count makes no sense at all. Especially when the fact that the basis of Christianity isn't even mentioned, in the OT, the book you say has the most occurences of the word hate.

Your initial claim is silly, I was just obliging you and rendering it moot on your own terms.

And the circus act continues. Did you miss this post where I cite verbatim the passages these are from? That's incredible...considering I replied directly to you with them. Is it a regular occurrence for you to ignore facts which do not correspond with your rather inappropriate and mendacious view?

No sir, you did not render anything moot. You argued quite fantastically poorly that because love is mentioned more than hate, that the hate is negated; this is a rather elementary level error in reasoning called a non-sequitur, which I see you've failed to acknowledge. Actually, my mistake...you contrasted "Jesus" and "Christ" with "hate" which is even more alarming since they seem to have no analogous relationship at all to the term, either in thesis or antithesis.

I'm left again dumbfounded by a reply that seems largely delusory.

Did you miss the part where I replied to you and linked you to the fallacy of quoting out of context? Because the verbatim citing you did, does exactly that. If anything, you are ignoring the actual fact that the "facts" you claim I am ignoring are fallacies. 

It astounds me that you have such conginitive dissonance that you recognize that I am purposely using a non-sequitor, but fail to realize that because I am mimicing the form of your claim, I am pointing out that your claim is a non-sequitor as well. 

In other words, if you say that the occurrence of Christ in the NT is a non-sequitor, so to is your claim about the occurences of hate. 

I explicitly told you that based on your reasoning, the occurrence of Christ in the NT refers to how the OT is barely pertinent to modern christianity because its lack of Christ.

So I did not "contrast[ed] "Jesus" and "Christ" with "hate" as you claim, I contrasted the occurrences, ~900 vs 16, which is completely different then the fabricated claim you are alarmed at.