Max... said:
reggin_bolas said:
Aura7541 said:
reggin_bolas said:
Because atheism relies on the absolute belief in the nonexistence of a Creator or God. Nonexistence is impossible to prove. Existence of God isn't. It's been done before. Thomas did it. Artistotle did it with the unmoved mover. Modal logic proves it by a reductio ad absurdum.
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Atheism is the rejection of the belief in deities. Rejection does not necessarily mean absolute belief in nonexistance. The fact that you did not properly learn the definition of atheism really shows your irrational bias.
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From Merriam Webster Atheism is defined as:
a : a disbelief in the existence of deity
b : the doctrine that there is no deity
The latter is the most damaging to your thesis. Even if we accept the former, you still have the onus probandi because you demand the same from theists. The only difference is that a theist can prove god. You can't prove a negative so your epistemology is severely crippled.
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So? Prove it.
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that's an apt definition for atheism for a:
as for b: it's not exactly correct, it sounds a bit like strong or positive atheism, not atheism itself.
the key fallacy in his argument is considering atheism a positive claim. it is not, it's the default position. the positive claim is 'there is a god/gods', atheism is merely a 'i don't believe it until you demonstrate it'