It's kinda a hard thing to ask, when Germany doesn't owe Greece any war reperations.

The London Debt agreement put off any repiration payments until a peace treaty was signed.

Which didn't happen until 1990.

In said treaty Greece agreed to waive all rights to war repirations.

Then another treaty could be done to give Greece on public debt the same benefit Germany received on war debt. Quite fair, I'd say.

Edit: http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-2056400/Greece-debt-crisis-Greeks-believe-Germans-owe-60bn.html

Even if Greece waived all rights to reparations, there's still that giant forced loan, I think that's the sum people are actually talking about: waiving rights to reparations would prevent Greece from asking punitive interests on it to pay also the damage done to Greek economy, but Greece still keeps the right to be paid back the forced loan with legal interests on it. It's a loan anyway, remove damages and reparations, you still have the loan and normal interests on it.

The "Giant forced loan" was no different then any other war repirations.

I'm aware what greek citizens believe.  It's just not true.

Outside which, even if you were to count it as a "loan" it was an "intererst free" loan.  So the amount there qouoting is way too big... even 9 million.  Since you wouldn't count even inflation in an interest free loan.

Talk of it is just another attempt to shirk responsibility and point anger elsewhere.  In this case the Germans.  There is noone to be mad at accept Greece's awful politicians and ultimatily those who elected those awful politcians because they increased peoples benefits despite not being able to pay for it.

It looks like you want to play the devil's advocate at any cost!   
A loan can by all mean be considered a loan and the imposition to concede it interest-free declared unlawful, as Greece wasn't able to refuse. If mafia forced you to lend them money without interest, and later you finally found the courage to report them , they couldn't pretend you freely conceded them that loan interest-free.
Anyway, pretending just the legal interest is by no means a retaliation or reparation, it's totally normal business, Germany wouldn't be punished by any means, it should just have to pay its debt.

Finally, all this must not be considered a justification for the Greek state's awful management of public money, Greece should be forced to finally get its finance straight, but at least it could save the Greeks from further sacrifices they don't deserve and that they can't afford anymore. And while Greek's state former happy and thoughtless spending is undefendable, French and German presumed good faith are very arguable too, just another example, they want Greece to further cut social spending, but they're pressing it to not cut exaggerated defence purchases: http://www.defensenews.com/article/20120305/DEFREG01/303050004/EU-Lawmaker-France-Germany-Pressured-Greece-Avoid-Defense-Cuts

If the mafia forced you to lend them money without interest and you reported them... they would be charged with extortion and theft.

That money taken would be considered stolen via extorition.  Not a loan.

Just how that German loan was considered part of "Damages of war", and was included when they agreed to forgo further war repirations.

Though if you were to waive your right to it being stolen, it would then be a loan... and would sit at the terms given.

The future of the EU is an interesting one...