| curl-6 said: With pay and gender for example, a woman or a man get paid the same amount if they work they same job for the same amount of hours, yet men typically choose higher paying jobs that are for instance dangerous or unglamorous. That's an internal force, driven by choice. |
There are per-occupation wage gaps that can't be explained by this. Also I am not convinced this is an internal force that isn't impacted by socialization according to gender. There is also evidence that as fields shift towards being female-dominated from being male-dominated that compensation decreases, and the converse.
But to stay on the original topic, what is the internal force for racial-outcome differences? Why is the U.S South more racially equal and integrated than the U.S North and Midwest despite it being more historically ideologically racist? How do we explain this without considering the historical impact of active social and political interventions? It can't be something like culture because the variance in African-American culture isn't very sharp along regional lines.
