wfz on 23 June 2008
| trestres said: @wfz, that would be the case if you had f(x)=1. |
Yes.....if f(x) = x
and x = 1
then f(x) = 1
So I don't see what you guys are talking about..that part of his fake proof was legit. It was counting "x" as a variable that wasn't correct.
EDIT: Actually you guys just made the same mistake the fake proof does. You acted as if "x" was a variable, which it isn't in this case!
