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tarheel91 said:
wfz said:
Shameless, you're right, I interpreted what you were trying to do wrong. I thought you went from dy/dx (1) = 0 and proved that it meant 1 = 0.

Even still, your proof is invalid. "x" isn't a variable, it's the constant "x=1" as you set it up.

Now it just seems that you're just trying to test us, or you don't know what you're talking about. =P

 

There's an easier way.  The slope of x = 1 is undefined.  Thus, you can't take the derivative of it.

 

Actually the derivative is 0.