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kowenicki said:
Teeqoz said:

But presumingly they'd get a higher share of the revenue due to them being the publisher of the Pokemon games, right?

The revenue is the companies, it isn't distributed. They may get a better share of any resulting profit if they have an agreement to do so. The company will pay suppliers though, one of which will be Nintendo.  But any distribution of these figures are already in Nintendo financial results.

That I already know. But my point was that when Nintendo are publishing the games, they are effectively licencing the pokemon property from the pokemon company (of which they already own 33% of), to use in the development of the games. That does not mean that all the proceeds from the Pokemon games go through TPC before they reach Nintendo, but rather that Nintendo gets a certain share (let's arbitrarily say 60%), then TPC gets a certain share for the licence (let's say 20%), with the remaining (in this case 20) percent going to retailer margins and whatnot, and possibly Gamefreak if they have a deal where Gamefreak gets a % of the proceeds.

Nintendo would in this case get 60%+20%*0.33=66.6% of the proceeds from the games.

Does this seem plausible (not the specific figures, but that way of distribution), or am I way off?

EDIT: Considering Nintendo funds the games (uhhh... I think?) for the 3DS, it makes sense that proceeds from the game sales wouldn't be distributed equally amongst the owners of TPC. Unless they calculate proceeds after costs are covered. hmmm.