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Slimebeast on 20 April 2016
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Peh said:
Slimebeast said:

"I have a state of 1 million people where only 100 of them are immigrants. These 100 are all criminals. This means all immigrants have a crime rate of 100%. Can I use this statistic as an argument for calling the majority of immigrants criminal aswell, even if the amount of immigrants in other states are higher, but have a lower crime rate?"

Of course you can use that number. It makes a part of the overall picture, a part of the crime situation of the countries in question.

"It makes a part of the overall picture, a part of the crime situation of the countries in question"

Sweden has the largest rape rate of all the states in Europe. This tells me more about the issues in sweden than the rest of Europe. But nah, let's just use this statistic as a representation for the entirety of Europe. Sounds legit.

But I already told you:

I used statistics from the 80's, which is long before the new law was in place that widened the definition of rape in Sweden and that makes comparisons with other European numbers harder. But the 80's statistics are completely legit for showing rape crime and the gross overrepresentation of x5-10 times for immigrants outside of Europe (MENA).

The situation is even worse in the capitals of Norway and Finland according to police figures. Overall in Western Europe, the situation is similar and very gross.

But just you deny it all, together with your foreign friends. It's not like we haven't seen it before when it comes to Germany.