By using this site, you agree to our Privacy Policy and our Terms of Use. Close
Peh said:
Slimebeast said:

How about you adress what I actually posted?

The rape laws in Sweden have changed, yes, and the statistics nowadays aren't directly comparable to the rest of the world. I know that. BUT, I posted numbers from the past when those laws weren't in place. But, even if we were to use current statistics, it still wouldn't affect the the ratio between foreigners and natives, the huge  overrepresentation of immigrants in sexual crime.

"We don't see an increase of crimes done by immigrants."

That's simply a lie. Something your just claim because you want it to be so.

Immigrants in Europe are highly overrepresented in crime and crime increases by the number of immigrants and it's certainly true for Germany as well.  It's simple fact.

What the hell has Germany being 8 times larger than Sweden to do with anything? Am I talking to a child? Don't you know even the basics of statistics?

And who are you? Are you an immigrant yourself or just a self-hating German?

Love being called as someone who commits ad hominem, but it seems it's ok to use ad hominem against me. *thumbs up*

Oh, I did adress what you've posted. The conclusion was, it's not a reprensentable statistic for the rest of europe.  You've pointed out a high rape crime done by immigrants in sweden, but looking at the statitistics I've provided, and no one else looked at it until now, it is not the case for all the other states.  And just to take on the argument of having a low amount of immigrants compared to natives but higher crime rate.

I.e.:

I have a state of 1 million people where only 100 of them are immigrants. These 100 are all criminals. This means all immigrants have a crime rate of 100%. Can I use this statistic as an argument for calling the majority of immigrants criminal aswell, even if the amount of immigrants in other states are higher, but have a lower crime rate?

Well, that example is actually YOUR argument which you are holding right now with your post. I don't think it holds any value. But keep on defending it if you want.

 

Also.. what does it matter where I am coming from? Looking for an opening?

"I have a state of 1 million people where only 100 of them are immigrants. These 100 are all criminals. This means all immigrants have a crime rate of 100%. Can I use this statistic as an argument for calling the majority of immigrants criminal aswell, even if the amount of immigrants in other states are higher, but have a lower crime rate?"

Of course you can use that number. It makes a part of the overall picture, a part of the crime situation of the countries in question.