sc94597 said:
Because medieval Englishman spoke modern English and not middle English? Anyway Shakespeare probably had a rhotic accent. Both Standard American English and Recieved Pronounciation are likely different from English spoken in Britain during the middle ages and up until the late 18th century. |
Closer to reality than using a New Jersey accent though. And yes, of course it has changed. But at least if they use accents from European countries, it works with the image of .....you know.....Europe.