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ultima said:
happydolphin said:
ultima said:

Here, I'll make it easier for you:

According to Luke:

Joseph,

the son of Heli,

According to Matthew:

 

and Jacob the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary, and Mary was the mother of Jesus who is called the Messiah.

If nothing else, the lengths of the two lists are significantly different.

They are two different chronologies. Joseph is the son of Jacob, the son in law of Heli.

"John Gill, a great Bible scholar, stated in his commentary that “Joseph, the son of Heli” meant:

not that Joseph was the son of Eli; for he was the son of Jacob, according to (Matthew 1:16), but Jesus was the son of Eli; and which must be understood, and carried through the whole genealogy, as thus; Jesus the son of Matthat, Jesus the son of Levi, Jesus the son of Melchi . . . till you come to Jesus the son of Adam, and Jesus the Son of God; though it is true indeed that Joseph was the son of Eli, having married his daughter; Mary was the daughter of Eli: and so the Jews speak of one Mary, the daughter of Eli, . . . which accords with this genealogy of the evangelist, who traces it from Mary, under her husband Joseph; though she is not mentioned, because of a rule with the Jews, that “the family of the mother is not called a family.”1

Renowned Greek scholar A.T. Robertson points out that Luke employs the definite article toubefore each name, except Joseph’s.2 This seems to indicate that a better translation would be “Jesus being (as was supposed the son of Joseph) the son of Heli” with the understanding that Jesus was the grandson of Heli through Mary.

Although the descendants of Jeconiah were unable to physically sit on the throne of David (Jeremiah 22:24–30), Jesus was able to fulfill the prophecies that David’s throne would be established forever (Jeremiah 33:17) through his mother Mary (genetic descendant of David through Nathan—a non-cursed line)."

Source: http://www.answersingenesis.org/articles/am/v1/n2/chronology-conundrums

Read the words. I went back and looked at different translations. They all unambiguously agree (through wording) that it's a chain of sons to fathers. There is absolutely no mention of Mary in Luke's passage. Having read the bible, I also noticed that the females are never chronicled. So why would Mary all of a sudden become important in a culture like that?

Read bold. (Edit: sorry, I missed bolding the last item, important in answering your question)