a.l.e.x59 on 02 June 2007
Don't forget, there could have been a 0 at the end of the infinite number of 0s before it. But no, there is a 1 at the end of the infinite amount of 0s before it. If 0.999... is the same as 1, then 0.999...8 is the same as 0.999..., then 0.999...7 is the same as 0.999...6... and eventually, 0.45312454...54 would be the same as 0.45454...53, which would also mean that 0.45312454...53 would be the same as 1. So basically, all numbers would be exactly the same. Therefore, the theory is flawed. It's hard to comprehend, but that 1 still exists in that number. Until we can fully understand the meaning if "infinite," this question will always remain unclear to some, but I believe the correct answer is, "No, it is not the same."
