dsgrue3 said:
No...that's what we just discussed. If you win the popular vote, you win the elction. The only times a candidate has won the popular vote and lost is Gore 2000, Grover Cleveland 1888, and Samuel J Tilden 1876. Besides Gore, which was a +0.5% advantage nationally, you have to go back over 124 years for another time when a candidate lost the popular vote and won the electoral vote. Otherwise they coincide. |
I don't know where to go with this. You don't win the election because you win the popular vote. The fact that winning the popular vote and electoral victory usually coincide does not mean that winning the popular vote results/causes electoral victory. That's not how the system is structured, but I think you understand that.
You seem to be arguing for the sake of arguing. I said its perfectly feasible to lose the popular vote and win the election. You say "no" and then precede to give three examples that prove my point, one happening just 12 years ago. I don't know what else to say besides your previous post essentially proves my point.