| Wonktonodi said:
There are many actual. The one I showed before of the rapist marrying the rape victim if the victim wasn't engaged/ virgin depending on the translation http://www.religioustolerance.org/mar_bibl0.htm So for instance did the new testament get rid of where a man would have to marry his brothers widow if she had no sons? What were the changes in divorce? I'm pretty sure that the old testament had it where the woman couldn't get a divorce unless her husband agreed. With sad cases for a woman whose husband was lost not being allowed to remarry. Pretty sure because I was raised Jewish and learned of how in modern day there is the Lieberman clause in Ketubahs. |
@bold. That's a very good question. It doesn't explicitely no. There are Jewish customs that were kept by the messianic Jews in the time of Christ that much I've learnt, but I'm not sure if Jews still practiced this.
The truth is though, that this would appear as more of a custom. In contrast, the commandment of the nuclear family (in your link) was a confirmed commandment that Jesus reiterated, and Paul thereafter. Not only is it clearly not a custom, but it is reinforced. I see little doubt about its authority for a believer.
Again, alot of the faith is left up to interpretation, as the Council in Jerusalem will show. The prodigies and the teachings of Christ lead the first believers to ultimately decide that circumcision was a custom that could be done away with. Paul said so. But when it came to sexual immorality and marriage, Paul was clear that it was to be a nuclear family and certain specific forms of sexual immorality in ephesians 5 were forbidden.
As such, Paul decided that certain rules no longer applied because they were simply "burdens that they could not bear", and some remained since they were of higher priority.
That's what I was trying to say earlier.
