| Kasz216 said: B+C) Actually, i never conceded that. For extreme cases some guy who's never been to a doctor could walk out in front of a subway train and be instantly killed on the scene. Or jump off a bridge and commit suicide. There is only one inevitability in life... and that is it's end. |
Except that he didn't spring fully-formed as an adult from the ground. And I'd be very interested to meet this adult American who's made it past his minority without once using healthcare. It's an interesting hypothetical, but I sincerely doubt it stretches any further than that.
| Kasz216 said:
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And what's the legal principle behind this argument? All I see is a policy argument. You're again trying to use the slippery slope argument ("if we let gays marry, how can we stop people from marrying their dogs?!"). Your position is that that "if something WAS legal because it was inevitable ONLY the inevitable could be covered."
Why? Under what constitutional, statutory, or even judicial rule? I can't think of it; if you can find one, I'll be happy to change my tune.
| Kasz216 said:
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I'm afraid I don't understand this point, or how it relates to the discussion as a whole.
| Kasz216 said:
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Now THIS is the strongest argument you've made so far. It's also one of the bigger reasons why I'm not completely convinced of the constitutionality of the law, although I still lean towards rather than against. The greatest reason why I can see this point being insufficiently persuasive in court comes back to the fact that medical emergencies are, almost by definition, unpredictable, so engaging in ex post facto analysis strikes me as flawed.
| Kasz216 said:
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Actually, I don't believe this is true at all. If driving was a right, it would still impact interstate commerce, and therefore fall under the commerce clause. There might be more restrictions on the mandate, most likely that the impoverished can forego insurance at their option, but again, the commerce clause does not contain an exemption that says that economic activities that are otherwise constitutional rights are exempt from the commerce clause. Those intervening rights might restrict the applicability of the commerce clause (again, see the above example), but unless the intervening right is some absolute that states it's impervious to other regulation, I don't see the issue.
Consider, for example, how even the Free Exercise Clause does not constitutionally protect a religious group's business from being subject to most regulations that apply to non-religious businesses, and most (all?) of those narrow exceptions are specifically carved out in the statutes for political rather than constitutional reasons. The Catholic Church isn't going to get its way on the contraceptive issue because of the Free Exercise Clause, it's going to get it because of political pressure.
| Kasz216 said:
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This is factually untrue. Demonstrators who violate time and place restrictions don't get off scots-free just because they were exercising their free speech rights. These folks have to pay the fine, just like any other violator. Rights are not absolute, and they are far from immune to regulation. I suspect this is at the heart of our disagreement.







