hibikir on 30 July 2009
Purchasing expenses are rarely included in profit-loss numbers. After all, They have a value of 0 from an accounting perspective: They are converting money into capital, which was probably priced at the purchasing cost.
It'd take forever to explain exactly how this things are done, and their accountants could have done a number of different things to make the numbers look slightly different, but no matter what they did, the effect of an aquisition itself nto their profits is probably negligible.
