tarheel91 on 23 June 2008
| wfz said: Shameless, you're right, I interpreted what you were trying to do wrong. I thought you went from dy/dx (1) = 0 and proved that it meant 1 = 0. Even still, your proof is invalid. "x" isn't a variable, it's the constant "x=1" as you set it up. Now it just seems that you're just trying to test us, or you don't know what you're talking about. =P |
There's an easier way. The slope of x = 1 is undefined. Thus, you can't take the derivative of it.
