Mr_Destiny said:
Also from that Smithsonian article: "Despite the stolen Supreme Court seats of the mid-1800s, says Geyh, the modern Senate's outright declaration that no Obama nominee would get a hearing or vote in 2016 still violated the Senate's norms. None of the tabled nominees of the 1800s were federal judges like Garland, whose qualifications the Senate endorsed in 1997 by confirming him for his appeals court seat, 76-23. "You've got a consensus choice," says Geyh, "which makes it all the more bald-faced that the Senate would do as it did." Lots of chaotic SC crap went on in the mid-1800s--that's why these "norms" were established in the first place. I admit it was not literally unprecedented--I only checked the 20th century nominees. And indeed nothing in the Constitution requires the Senate to vote on nominees. Even so, norms have a place--if it weren't for them, the Dems could have blocked Eisenhower's, Nixon's, and maybe Reagan's picks since they controlled the Senate for 52 out of 62 years from the 30s to the 90s; the GOP could have done the same to Bill's nominees. Each side understood that if one broke the norm, it'd start a race to the bottom. Aging justices would always retire while their party controlled the other two branches so the makeup of the SC would stay locked no matter whom the people vote in. How about electors? Nowhere in the Constitution does it require they follow the popular vote, so I'm sure it's fair if they choose anyone they want! So yes, these things aren't set in stone, but they most certainly have a valid purpose. |
The norms were already being challenged by the dems as Schumer and Reid show. No seat was stolen and the tactics used had been used previously. They could have just abolished the seat and have no tie breaking vote. They allowed the seat to remain vacant for long enough.
Electors can and have voted against the popular vote of their state







