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DonFerrari said:
Ka-pi96 said:

It doesn't, not even slightly. You'd have to have the opposite side of that, ie. how many monoplies have been formed due to government intervention, if you want to make that argument.

But regardless of whether governments are good at making them or not (they obviously are) the fact that there's only been a single one that's formed without government intervention clearly shows that government anti-monopoly rules are in fact working, otherwise there would have been a whole lot more of them.

Nope man... the proof Mises done is that Monopolies doesn't occur naturally (except the single case), every single case he could narrow to government intervention creating it one way or another, so the rules government make doesn't prevent any monopoly, but in some situations create or nourish then.

But has capitalism ever existed without government intervention? People make that case for socialism/communism, but wouldn't that mean that one would also have to conclude the same for that?