Hiku said:
We are talking about laws regarding sexual misconduct here, and whatever ambigous claim you're trying to make, no court would ever rule that a couple who had sex for years were having it without each other's consent just because they didn't verbally annunciate it.
If they don't wait for anything that a court of law would consider a sign of consent that can even plausibly have been misinterprited. |
its interesting that we were talking about a first kiss and you had to reclassify that to being a couple who have been together for years because i suppose you are starting to realise that things aren't always so black and white
furthermore a couple could be together for several years in an abusive relationship where the woman's boundaries are crossed repeatedly or boundaries could be crossed one day after years of a happy relationship
the age of the relationship has nothing to do with whether consent is present in an interaction or not
"If they don't wait for anything that a court of law would consider a sign of consent"
that is why i was asking you waiting for what specifically... i suppose you agree that its possible to wait for a non-verbal sign and not a verbal one correct?
