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JWeinCom said:
Nem said:

I just want to clear up that on question 1, you did say child, so it is indeed a "no". But your definition of child and mine don't seem to coincide and you often lead the conversation into the topic of children in over to appear more self-righteous, wich is why i misinterpreted.

On 2, the line is not clear and we need to find a way to determine it. This isn't by tracing an arbitrary age but some sort of individual test.

Ok.  So we accept number 1.  Although, I don't see why it matters if I said child or not... I don't think it's ok to have sex with adults who are incapable of informed consent either, if the other person knows they are incapable...

Premise number 2 is not about any line.  It's a syllogism, so they're binary questions.  True or false, yes or no.

At certain ages, a child is young enough that we can automatically conclude that they are unable to give consent, without any further consideration or testing.  Do you agree with this?  Or do you think that we need to test anyone age 0-100 to see if they are capable of consent?

That is a whole different can of worms. I am talking about 12 to 18 (general puberty age). Though truth be told, many people older than that are not fit to make decisions.