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dsgrue3 on 08 August 2013
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happydolphin said:
dsgrue3 said:

You are misunderstanding what foreknowledge is. Foreknowledge isn't going to time t to witness a particular decision then moving back to a time prior to t to wait for it. It's knowing before witnessing the decision.

You have not made any decisions at time 0, but an omniscient being already knows every outcome. <- this is foreknowledge.

I believe we're both correct, my mistake. Foreknowledge is a word that simply means to known in advance. Whether the actions can be predetermined (your scenario) or not (the one I presented), in both cases the being has foreknowledge.

The question remains, how is it possible for something that can't be predetermined be foreknown? Simply by virtue of being unbound by time. If I know something before it happened, because I was also there when it happened, then I have foreknowledge.

@prof. Not really. Think about it.

You keep making these logically incongruous statements like foreknowledge without predeterminism.  These go hand in hand. One does not exist without the other. What is even more baffling is when you say "unbound by time." If there is no time, the terms foreknowledge and predeterminism have no meaning at all as they are temporally linked. There is no "before" if there is no time. 

@Free Will when concerning neuroscience, studies show that the subconscious controls everything. It simply relays the decision to our conscious to be performed. So if you consider sleep-walking, a subconscious act, you realize that free will cannot exist. Unless you consider sleep-walking a choice.