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ultima on 29 July 2013
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happydolphin said:
ultima said:
happydolphin said:

He got Mary from the greek term tou, by omission. I had bolded it for you you should have read it:

"Renowned Greek scholar A.T. Robertson points out that Luke employs the definite article toubefore each name, except Joseph’s.2 This seems to indicate that a better translation would be “Jesus being (as was supposed the son of Joseph) the son of Heli” with the understanding that Jesus was the grandson of Heli through Mary."

2) On top of that, I hope you understand that Joseph can't have two biological fathers.

I adressed that... I told you that every bible version that I looked at unanimously agreed that there wasn't such a notion present. Once again, Mary is not mentioned. At all.

2) Why not? After all, Jesus had no biological father at all. Perhaps he lent his right to a biological father to Joseph, so he could have two.

But no, all joking aside, I'm not sure what you mean by this.

Holy hell. Mary was not mentioned. All males, except Joseph, had the greek article Tou before each name. That's because Joseph was the Son in law.

Holy hell. No such distinction is present in any of the versions I've seen. How do you explain that then, if your point is so clear that it's frustrating you? Did every single translator overlook this? Seems unlikely. Improbable. Dare I say, impossible?