| dsgrue3 said:
Again, religious people can be defined by the Dunning-Kruger effect.
"The data for the national IQs and percentages asserting disbelief in God for the 137 countries are given in the Appendix A. It will be seen that in only 17% of the countries (23 out of 137) does the proportion of the population whodisbelieve in God rise above 20%.
These are virtually all the higher IQ countries. The correlations between the national IQs and religious disbelief are given in Table 3. Row 1 gives the correlation of 0.60 for the total sample and is highly statistically significant (pb.001). To examine whether this relationship holds across the whole range of national IQs we have divided the nations into two groups of those with IQs between 64–86 and those with IQs between 87–108. Row 2 gives the data for the 69 countries with IQs between 64–86. In this group only 1.95% of the population are non-believers. There is a range between b1% and 40%, and the correlation between the two variables is only 0.16. Row 3 gives the data for the 68 countries with IQs between 87–108. In this group 19.99% of the population disbelieve in God. There is a range between b1% and 81%, and the correlation between the two variables is only 0.54 (pb.001). Thus, most of the variation in religious disbelief is among the higher IQ nations" http://www.midus.wisc.edu/findings/pdfs/1197.pdf
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Do you have the wrong study? I mean the article is interesting, but its not discussing anything you typed. Its looking at individuals within the US....not different countries.
"The current study sought to address each of these limitations.We utilized a large sample of mature US adults contacted by the MacArthur Foundation Survey of Midlife Development in the United States."
Edit: I'll also say that it would be interesting to see how their models perform if they controlled for fundamentalism in the other models (excluding the fundamentalists model). I would think that non-fundamentalist would be significantly different from other followers in terms of intelligence. I mean....when you just look at the fundamentalist model, there's a significantly negative correlation between both IQ and education....a trait none of the other models exhibit when both variables are included in the model.
I'm pretty sure its been discussed to death too, but I have serious reservations about using IQ as a proxy for intelligence.
