happydolphin said:
@bold. I don't disagree. In the link you provided (dr laura letter) "The key to this essay is its premise, not the pedantic details of it of how it is defended. Simply put, the letter points out a logical flaw in the "homosexuality is wrong because the Bible says so" argument: if homosexuality is wrong because it goes against God's law as outlined in the Bible, why aren't any number of activities now viewed as innocuous but once regarded as unacceptable also offenses against God's law? How can one part of Leviticus be deemed as etched in stone when other parts have been discarded as archaic?" I've explained this to Bouzane. Unless something is superceded in the new testament, it's largely unchanged.
As such, though most of the mosaic law is superceded in terms of judgement due to Christ's display of mercy and grace towards Mary Magdaleine, so would smiting your neighbor for having issues with the smell of the sacrifice be superceded. Not only that, but the New Testament is clear in that Christ has become the sole sacrifice to be offered to God as of his death, and as such, no more sacrifices are required. This was confirmed by the tearing of the veil to the holy of holies in the temple on the day of crucifixion, as sign that the work of the priests was done away with. Similar logic can apply to many of the fallacies brought up.
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but does it cover them all? and is there some clear place that covers all the ones that are kept and those that aren't? or are they all over and some just assumed?








