Chik-Fil-A Gay Fallout

[bouzane]

happydolphin said:

bouzane said:

So, you quote me teachings from Jewish texts that predate the existence of Christ?

Yes, and?

 You quote me a line that states homosexuality is abnormal while making no reference to same-sex marriage?

I have no idea what you're talking about... the abnormality was about Paul, though not walking with Christ, a man who martered Christians, was a late apostle. I don't have the time nor the patience to explain this to you. Ultimately what all this means is that biblically speaking his words are divinely inspired as if the words of Christ himself (as they are animated by the same spirit). So since Paul teaches that homosexuality is against the will of God, you question was "Where does Christ condemn any aspect of homosexuality", I provided you with an answer. But I'm closing the door because I fear I will offend some friends and I don't have the patience to go over these basics. Please do your own research on the matter.

 Again, there is no basis for opposing same-sex marriage in the teachings of Christ.

See above.

 Also, It doesn't matter what the Bible claims, marriage was never a religious institution and the Church has no right trying to define it or use it as a political tool.

Who gives you the right to make such a bold claim. The church certainly has a right to define it, as it is their opinion, their belief, their point of view, as much as it is your opinion that marriage can support same-sex relationships. Stop being hypocritical.

 If any religious group could claim the right to define marriage it would be the Jews and three out of four branches of the Jewish faith support same-sex marriage.

Indeed, and they are not following the word of God. Everyone has a right to claim a definition, not all are correct. There is ultimately only 1 true definition, no matter how broad it may be.

 Again, opposing same-sex marriage has no moral basis, only bigotry and ignorance. 

This sentence is plagued with what it condemns. I have stated my views without being neither ignorant nor a bigot. Proof that this claim is false, by counter-exapmle.

As such, there is no "opportunism and stomping on freedom of faith" as there is no foundation for such views in either the Christian or Jewish faiths (with the exception of Ultra-Orthodox Judiasm).

Even if there were no foundation of such a view in the Christian or the Jewish faith, as an individual with a right to my morality and beliefs, there is "opportunism and stomping on freedom of faith". As such, the stomping on freedom of faith is not dependent on any one religion, be it named or not.

 Please follow the link I provided, you can learn about the teachings of Christ unadulterated by the Judiasm and Paganism that permeate the "Christian" Bible.

My above post explains this. Also, Christ's teaching as is "A man shall leave his father and his ? (mother) and be united with his ? (wife)."

Mosaic: Gen 2: 24.

Jesus: Mark 10:7

Paul the apostle: Ephesians 5:31

 

My point about the Jewish teachings was that they are not Christian, I thought that was obvious. Any Jewish teachings that Christ believed to be relevant he simply reiterated. Anything that was not relevant he did not. If everything that was taught before Christ was relevant to him and his philosophy then he would have supported dietary laws when he actually made statements to the contrary. If it wasn't a lesson taught by Christ, it isn't Christian.

So, because the "condemnation" of homosexuality has "the same source" as the teachings of Christ than they are as the teachings of Christ himself? I'm not buying it, at all. Not a statement made by Christ means that it is not Christian.

Again, the Church has absolutely no right to force its own, narrow definition of marriage upon anybody else under any circumstance. This is not a religious theocracy. We shouldn't be forced to obey their "moral" construct or anybody else's.

Again, I want you to show me where Christ himself actually condemns same-sex marriage. Otherwise, there is little to no basis in Christianity to support the opposition to it.

How do personal views, not based upon the teachings found in religious texts count as faith? I can not believe in anything I want, without any foundation whatsoever, and call it a legitimate faith.

I can not understand how anything Christ says can be misconstrued into "oppose the ability of others to enjoy the same freedoms and rights as the general population". A few lines from the Old Testament certainly won't convince me otherwise.