richardhutnik said:
Correlation is not causality. One can't just say that because there was government doing welfare that meant that suddenly families broke down. Families broke down in middle and upper class to. The sexual revolution happened in the 1960s also. Catholic Church would argue that birth control was a major factor also, saying they predicted this would happen. One could then also argue that the drug war drove people to do more drugs, and argue the prohibition side also. And on this, some would argue you are wrong on the causality side, and also outcome: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Welfare%27s_effect_on_poverty#Table_of_poverty_levels_pre_and_post_welfare http://www.governmentisgood.com/articles.php?aid=22&p=2 This being said, government is working for someone, even if it were special interests. Someone is getting rewarded for it, or there would be an attempt to grow it. Someone gets the extra money reallocated. Someone happens to get benefits from restricting things. There is a payout, with desires outcomes, so it continues. |
The graphs you're choosing are cherry picked timelines, after all why use 1960 to 1991 or 1970 to 1997 when the data we have starts in 1950 and is still collected today in 2012? If you look at the longer timeline you can see exactly what happened ...

Industrialization reduced poverty, welfare had nothing to do with it. Many European countries were delayed compared the the United States because of the time needed to recover from the destruction caused by World War 2.
As for the breakdown in family structure ... before welfare changed it, a man would be pressured to marry a woman he "got" pregnant. As you can probably imagine, a man who "ruined" his life by being forced into a marriage he didn't want was highly motivated to prevent his sons and/or daughters from following in his footsteps. As you can see from the following graph the rise in teen pregnancies begins at the same time as the war on poverty began








