Jay520 on 25 June 2012
| keroncoward said: ab |
1.) You didn't respond to my second paragraph. You just ignored it. Here, I'll post it again:
Anyway, that still wouldn't be gay and I don't understand your reasoning behind it. Please explain. Do you think that if a guy likes woman's fingers in his butt then he'll like a penis in his butt? That doesn't make sense. You can't just exchange a female's fingers with a male's penis. That's like saying if a guy likes kissing a woman's fingers, then he likes kissing penis. Do you agree with that statement?
2.) My question is on topic. It's using the logic that you brought up, the logic that "if you did this with a woman's body part, then you can do the same to a man's body part". I'm simply re-using your logic on another scenario. So I'll post my piece again for you to see:
Also, I think it's time that you answer a question. You believe that "if a guy fucks a womans ass, then he can fuck a mans ass". Using that logic, you must also believe that "if a guy kisses a womans lips, he will also kiss a guys lips". Do you agree with that statement? If no, then your logic is flawed.
And no, I willl not bring up babies & ufos as they have nothing to do with your logic that "if you can do something with a woman's body part, then you can do the same with a man's body part".
Please respond to both points 1 & 2
