Kasz216 on 12 January 2008
| AkiraGr said: Arrian, Plutarch and Herodotus say no such things as Macedonians as a non greek entity i have read them personally. The language is ancient greek you can confirm that from ancient textile urns and manuscripts of the Vergina excavation site as in the tomb of King Philip the Second which was the father of Alexander. Even after the great civil war that Alexander did in Greece to unite all the Greeks to make an expendition war against the Persian empire there was no need to translate anything(lol to claim that is just a joke) because all the orders where given in greek or else Alexander would have an army of translators for just giving to the march of 1.200.000 soldiers that rushed against Persia. Just Read More Carefully next time if you ever read this great Historians. |
I've got Plutarchs "The Age of Alexander" right infront of me. I've got to disagree with your reading of it.
In which... he states on page 212 after Alexanders death
Where he states the greek states form a league against Macedon. He talks about how Demosthenes threw all of his energies into getting the various greek states to attack Macedonia and drive them out of Greece.
How could they be driven out of greece, if Macedonia itself was part of greece?
This is just one of a number of things in the book that point to this.
