GameOver22 said:
My argument wasn't meant to show that God does not intervene. I wasn't trying to prove that God cannot be proverbally pulling our strings like we are puppets. I don't think we can prove this with any certainty. It was just meant to show that free will and omniscience are compatible. With your last paragraph, I might need to explain better. When we say God is all-knowing, we mean he possesses all knowledge. The problem arises because there is not any knowledge about the future until the future becomes present. I can predict that the sun will rise tomorrow morning, but this prediction does not become actual until tomorrow. In order to test the truth of a statement, we need to have something to test it against, but this correspondance between a proposition and reality is not available when talking about future statements (the future being unobserved). Point being, there is not any knowledge about the future, so it does not count against God's omniscience. Personally, this makes sense to me, as long as it is only applied to free will. I don't think the same can necessarily be said for physical laws. This arises because of the fact that there is an indeterminate aspect to free-will (not so with physical laws). In order to defeat this argument, I think someone would have to attack the second claim of free-will- the claim that people are the sole arbiters of their decisions. They would need to show that my decisions are not really my own decisions and that God or some other entity is making the decisions for me. Edit: In regard to your first paragraph, I don't think there is any way we can disprove such claims with any certainty, but I think we can ignore most of these claims because they require awkward explanations and become too complex (Ockham's razor in other words). |
You are right, about what I was trying to argue, which is the idea of free will not being compatible with predestination (the idea of a higher power knowing the future). The thing we're not agreeing on is 'what is omniscience?' which is a HUGE question. There have been debates for a very long time, and there really is no right answer. Before I get to that though I want to get to Occam's razor (I always spell it this way =P).
First, some background for anyone else reading that thinks Occam's razor is about 'the simplest explanation is most likely the correct one'. This is a misrepresentation, Occam's razor is about shifting burden of proof onto more complex theories. The better overall statement is that "Simpler theories are, other things being equal, generally better than complex ones". That is, unless the more complex theories can in some way provide proof for the necessity of their complexity, they should be re-worked or abandonned until a simpler form is found. Also, the key words are 'other things being equal'.
Okay, that out of the way, the problem I have with Occam's razor with discussing the extremely theoretical is that it tends to lead to complete disregard for what may possibily be correct. My idea is a little strange, overly complex, and harder to follow then the simpler ideas we already have. Is it wrong? The part that makes it especially tricky is that I'm commenting beyond our perception. It's completely unknown territory, and as far as we know now, may very well remain unknown forever. In essence, just applying trends and ideas we can perceive to things we cannot perceive seems kind of lazy to me sometimes. Maybe this is more important but I'm not looking for validity, I'm merely discussing possibility. A possibility that would normally be easily disgarded due to following Occam's razor.
Now, onto Omniscience! I need to hold back here or I'll go on for about 10 paragraphs. I've been reluctant to say this but yes, there are more than one kind of omniscience and different beliefs regarding omniscience and perception of time. I mentioned predestination before, and that plays a role in this too. You and trestres are both talking about inherent omniscience, the ability to know what one chooses to know and can know. So you posit that the future is not knowledge to be known, that just by being the future, means it is something that has not happened yet and thus has no direct basis in reality.
My point is that I simply disagree with that notion, and when we're done, we will both have to just agree to disagree. Let me put it in a different perspective though. We view time in a dynamic, linear fashion. We remember the past, live in the present (which instantly becames the past of course) and dream of/hope for/think of the future. But what's to say this is actually the case? Yes, this is why I went into Occam's razor in that much depth, but what if time is not dynamic, and is actually static, and we only view/experience time in a dynamic manner. This is more of what I'm getting at, it's completely theoretical, but it's not like it hasn't been discussed before. Was it Slaughterhouse 5 that was mainly about this very point? I can't remember, it's been too long. That is to say, that everything is merely the past in sense.







