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sapphi_snake said:
GameOver22 said:
vlad321 said:


And if I ask of him why he agrees with those morals, he will say because it is what Christ taught, and you get the circle.


I don't want to put words in his mouth, but I am quite certain that is not the answer he would give given his previous responses. Atleast, it is not the response that most Chrisian theolgians would give. Christ's teachings are not right because the Bible says so. His teachings are right because they agree with the objective moral law. The main point I was attempting to make in my previous post is that this objective moral law is then taken as a foundational truth that needs no further justification.

What is this objective moral law you speak of?


I can't really answer the question. To put bluntly, there is always the question of whether subjective human experience can ever reach a universal, objective truth. I'm not religious, so I honestly don't know how a Christian would respond, but I imagine God would have access to the moral law becuase he is the one objective observer in the universe (being omniscient).

The main point I was making is that morality is not determined by God's decree (eg. the words in the Bible). There is an objective moral law, and Christian morality can be derived from these laws. If God just determined what was good at his own decree, there would be an arbitrary aspect to the nature of the laws, hence, morality would be arbitrary. The answer accepted by most theologians is that the moral law exists outside God, and God decided what was good based on these laws. If I'm not explaining it well, I would suggest reading Plato's Euthyphro. He discusses the problem better than me.