I can't find any consistency among websites as to what the accusations (especially in the first case) were. Some say comdom split, some say he tore it on purposes, some - that he removed it.
Anyway, if a guy goes without a condom against a woman's wish, I consider it a sex crime. Rape probably, but then again I also failed to find any exact definition of what Swedish law considers rape (and it does seem that rape is a loose translation of what the actual charges are).
As for the reverse situation, I'd consider it exactly the same crime.
However, it should be sufficiently proven that there was a mutual understanding about the conditions, which he then broke (or prove the opposite to dismiss the case). Because it seems in Sweden they can sue for not using a condom, even if that wasn't a deal-breaker at the time of sex, and that I consider nonsense, even if it were coming from a dumb teeny with a celebrity crush, who didn't know better when the opportunity was there.
