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mirgro on 05 June 2010
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BrayanA said:
Badassbab said:

1 ArnoldRimmer

The IDF kills innocent civilians- FACT. Not an opinion but fact. In fact it has killed tens of thousands of innocent civilians since it's creation (Occupied territories and Lebanon). Resorting to massive use of violence is what it's well known for and what it does best when it's policies are challenged whether it's peacfully or violently.

The killing of civilians in this particular incident is unfortunate for Israel as it involves a wide mix of people from all over the world including activists from countries it has diplomatic relations with and members of NATO. This has bought it to major world wide attention.

IDF forces were attacked when they legaly try to board, check my previous post:
4. It is legal to attack neutral merchant vessels in international waters acording to International Law (SECTION V : NEUTRAL MERCHANT VESSELS AND CIVIL AIRCRAFT) if they "are believed on reasonable grounds to be carrying contraband or breaching a blockade, and after prior warning they intentionally and clearly refuse to stop, or intentionally and clearly resist visit, search or capture" (See first link). As you can see from the second link: "breaching a blockade" - checked, "prior warning" - checked, "refuse to stop" - checked.
http://www.icrc.org/ihl.nsf/385ec082b509e76c41256739003e636d/7694fe2016f347e1c125641f002d49ce
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=P6jDIQr59Sk

As you can see from this video: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gYjkLUcbJWo
they were attacked by the mob on the top deck - so they can not be "innocent civilians". Every police and army can defend if they were attacked. So here the question is when IDF kill the people. If they shoot at them when they attack them - they are not guilty. If they shoot after they surrender - they are guilty. Do you have prove for the second one !!!!!!

They fucked up because they sent in armed forces on board. Can you tell me what country uses armed forces against unarmed civilian mobs in this day and age?