tarheel91 said:
I really don't like that last paragraph (and that's probably why I don't like your post in general). You think creating something isn't influential? It doesn't matter if Romans spread a concept (although that's VERY debatable, the Greeks actually recorded a ton of stuff, so most people go directly to the source of the classics if they want to study them), it's still Greek thinking that's influencing everyone. Is the Odyssey somehow Roman or even British because those were the civilizations that spread the story? No. It remains Greek. Is Plato considered a Roman? No. The same holds true for inventions. That's why I really think the only logical answer to this question is China. China was centuries ahead of the west for millenia when it came to technology, and a good portion of that technology DID influence the West, especially in the centures leading up to the Renaissance. At the same time, they exerted far more control, both culturaly and politcally, over the East than any civilization did over the West. |
But I have 2 points:
1) The Greeks didn't spread that culture to the west. Alexander the Great only conquered the East.
2) Roman culture had developed for centuries after hellenization, and was there centuries before. Like I said, it wasn't simply a copy, but an adaption. And the one that influenced everyone, is not the Greek culture, but the Roman one.
Here's an analogy. Imagine there's a book, and then there's a movie. Imagine that the movie deviates, crucially, from the book. But the majority of people know the movie and have watched it, while the book isn't. Will you say that the book was influential, or the movie?









