TruckOSaurus said:
mrstickball said:
TruckOSaurus said:
mrstickball said:
TruckOSaurus said:
The only thing I get from this graph is that every country's number of intentional firearm deaths loosely follows a pattern according to percentage of household with a gun except for the US which is abnormally high. Why it is that way though, I have no idea.
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Here's the issue: We're not debating if firearms cause firearm injuries or death. Of course they do. What we're debating is if more guns cause crime. The problem is that the graph that was given does not provide any data that actually helps that claim. Given the data sets, it's not trying to correlate crime, homicides, or murders to the number of households with guns. Only the number of households with guns vs. the number of crimes comitted with guns. If you have more of something - cars, guns, alcohol, drugs, knives, sports, ect, you will have more accidents, or what not.
That's why his chart is totally moot. Wouldn't a better chart be to compare murder rates per capita, to firearms per capita to see if there's a correlation between gun ownership and murders?
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I think you read the graph wrong. The Y axis says "Intentional Firearms Death per 100,000" which means accidents are not included in the numbers on it.
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Sorry, I should have said injuries. Either way, wouldn't you agree that the more you have of something, anything, the more likely that someone will get hurt or die from it?
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Yeah I agree with that and that's what the graph shows. What puzzles me though is that the US has a much larger ratio of intentional firearms death/gun ownership than all the other countries listed. What makes America so trigger-happy?
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Gangs. Drug Dealers. Suicide.
That'd take care of a large portion of the shootings. Most are either gang, drug, or suicide related.
