The War In Gaza

[Comrade Tovya]

superchunk said:

Kasz216 said:

superchunk said:
Furthermore, the Balfour Declaration of 1917, which was the first mention of a Jewish *homeland* was clearly that. A promise of a homeland NOT a State.

Read it here, it is a huge mess of contradiction in its wording.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Balfour_Declaration_of_1917

The difference between a homeland and a state is?  (The answer is.... a way of not saying state even though that's the goal.)

It even says in your article

The "Balfour Declaration" was later incorporated into the Sèvres peace treaty with Turkey and the Mandate for Palestine.

It's simple what it means.  "Jewish State, however that doesn't mean that it will be allowed that arab people will not have their civil rights taken away while establishing it (won't be forced out.), nor does it mean that Jewish people in other countries will be forced to move to Israel.

 

That is the part that is a contradiction and an impossibility.

 

 

You want to know what a real contradiction is (just out of fairness of couse), is stating that Palestinians deserve compensation (or return), but denying Jews the same right.  Jews throughout the Arab world were driven out the Arab nations due to the 1948 war that was instigated by the Arabs. 

Why are the Arabs so concerned with giving the Palestinians their just dues, but their own Jewish citizenry (who were not involved in the war) were driven out of the Arab nations that they were citizens of without a cent of compensation.  They had their assests and property stripped from them, and they received nothing in return except a swift kick in the ass. 

So if we really are serious about fairness for the Arabs who lost land and possessions due to the war, than we have to give Jews the same... am I wrong?

Certainly, if we are to have a fair and comprehensive peace initiative, then we have to give the proper dues to both the Jews and Arabs who were victimized by the war.  Right?