There's some major flaws in this reasoning.
1) Hitler had a militant force BEFORE the Nazis got elected. They were the disenfranchised WWI veterans and some unemployed men. There are no militant groups aligned with either political party.
2) Germany had a split executive branch that had a combined strength greater than the executive branch in the US. Hitler assumed both roles only after gaining legislative powers.
3) The Nazis never won a majority of seats in a fair election.
4) After the Reichstag fire, the 1933 election gave the Nazis a majority rule only if their allied parties were included. He then persuaded other center and right parties to vote for the Enabling Act - giving legislative powers to Hitler and his cabinet.
These are some stark political differences.
I would cite regulation, but I know you will simply ignore it.
