Kasz216 on 09 November 2008
| Final-Fan said: But if the crime rate for an untargeted crime is lower, then the risk of any individual becoming the victim of that untargeted crime is by definition less, no? So it seems to me that the only question is where your math is wrong, not if. How is this logic mistaken? |
Because untargeted crime doesn't always hit someone.
Drunk Drivers don't always hit people. Other times they get arrested, hit trees or make it home ok without getting caught.
More often then not Drunk Driving is "victimless."
Once again. Say you have a 1 in 20 chance of getting hit by a drunk driver.
On a roll of 1 you get hit. 2-5 they hit a tree, 6-10 they get arrest. 10-20 they get home.
The immigrant has the same rolls. So for him to save you... you need to hit a 1... and he needs to hit a 1. That's a 1 in 40.
So unless the crime rate is in term that miniscule... your more at risk.
