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bigjon said:
Kasz216 said:
akuma587 said:
Senlis said:
I believe that since marriage has been defined as a union between a man and woman, there is no gay marriage to ban.

I think Thomas Sowell says it best:

http://townhall.com/columnists/ThomasSowell/2008/11/05/affirmative_action_and_gay_marriage

A man's wife used to be defined as a man's property.  Just because a definition is used throughout history does not mean that the definition can't change.

Black people used to be defined as 3/5ths of a person.

Teenagers ued to be defined as adults.

Relying on a literal definition is a self-defeating purpose, because the definition you are using has probably been modified from some other definition in the first place, and countless other definitions have fundamentally changed as time has gone on, so why should we restrict ourselves to an older definition on a different social institution.

 

Well that and marriage wasn't always just between a man and a woman.  It just became that way after the Catholic church took over Rome.

 

 

 wrong. The earliest recording of the institution of marriage was in Genesis, and was between a man and a woman. I believe that a gay couple should have the same rights as a Hetro couple, but the term marriage is for a Man and a Women. I think Civil Union is a good term for the gays to use.

Besides, Marriage was originally started by the Bible... So why is not legal Marriages considered infingment on seperation of church and state? Just a though.

Note, the whether or not u believe it was a Biblical commandment for marriage to be between a man and a woman, u at least have to agree that is where the term comes from (I believe the idea is from the bible, the family unit) look at ancient pagan cultures, like Sparta for instance, they did not have the view of a family that we do now. The view we have now comes from the Bible.

How was I wrong there?  In Rome gay people got married until the Codex of Theodosian was passed.... because Christians took control of Rome.