You are thinking of it as more like a very long but finite list of 9s.

0.000...1 wouldn't work.  You can't have an infinite number of zeroes followed by a 1, because the zeroes go on forever, there is no end, so there will never be a zero after which you can place the 1. It's like saying "There's a 1 in the infiniteth decimal place". That decimal place doesn't exist, because if it did, it would have been finite.

What we can do in math can't be applied to reality. In reality there are only natural numbers. How we define things make them irrational, but not reality. Reality just doens't care.

The same is true for 0.999999999 though.

Why do you have it work for one thing but not another?

The proof looks solid enough though, the concept itself is what I have a hard time wrapping my mind around.

Note Im not saying that 0 is the same as 0.0000000 ect 1.

Im saying that 0.99999999 will always be missing that 0.00000000 ect 1 part, that keeps it from being a pure 1.

Check which day that video was released on. I'll give you a hint: it's 4 year anniversary was yesterday.

Thank you for posting this.

Yeah Im not good enough at math to see why this was bad math, but that video made it clear.

No, saying that there is an infinite sequence of 9s doesn't require and end. It goes on forever. However to say that there is an infinite sequence of 0s, followed by a 1 doesn't work. There can't be a 1 after the infinite amount of 0s, because that would by definition mean it was a finite amount of 0s.

That said, I can understand why you have a hard time figuring it out. It can be hard to wrap your head around it.

That video was an April fools joke full of bad math though (it was a pretty funny video though xD )

Seriously, check the upload date.

The chance of obtaining a six in a six sided dice isn't a natural number.

^ read my above in bold text.

Im not saying  0 can be equal to 0.0000000001.

What Im saying is 0.9999999 = 1

is wrong.

Why?

Because you would always be missing that 0.000000001 part.

You can tell their not the same number on each side, by the fact that we re writeing them differntly.

In concept.... because we live in a physical world, where theres a limit to things, it could make practical sense.

However in math terms I think its wrong.

I think the proof is bad math.

I just dont know how to proove that its bad math.

I only used math terms in my proof. If I can use math terms to prove it, how can it be wrong in math terms?

I can get that you don't understand it, but that you deny it.

Also we write numbers in different ways all the time

1 is the same as 1.0, which is the same as 1.00, which is the same as 1.000.... (with an infinite amount of zeroes). It is also the same as 1/1, 2/2, 3/3, 10^0, etc. You can write numbers in more than one way.