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No 20 34.48%
 
not sure 1 1.72%
 
Total:55

1=2

let's put

a=1   b=1

a=b

ab=b^2                       (multiply by b)

ab-a^2 = b^2 - a^2 (substract a^2)

a(b-a)= (b+a)(b-a)   (factorize)

a = b+a                      divide by (b-a))

a= 2a                        (since a=b)

1= 2                           since(a=1)



Bet reminder: I bet with Tboned51 that Splatoon won't reach the 1 million shipped mark by the end of 2015. I win if he loses and I lose if I lost.

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Player2 said:
Wright said:
Player2 said:
Wright said:
The problem comes when you operate on an infinite scale. There's no way you can reach infinite. Infinite + 1 = Infinite. Going by that logic, yeah, the diference between 1 to 0'9999...·n Infinite is 0000000.... ·n Infinite + 1. And Infinite + 1 = infinite. So there's no difference between 1 and 0'99999....

1/0 = infinite :P


Then Infinite · 0 = 1?

Think about it.

It can be. infinite x 0 is an indeterminate form.


Precisely. Because of that, whatever operation you do involving Infinite will always equal Infinite. Infinite is indeterminated because you can't reach it. So Infinite + - · / anything will equal Infinite, except multiplying it to 0 because that would mean negate it, plus the result is zero.

Think of this too: Infinite - Infinite =/= 0



Jay520 said:
AbbathTheGrim said:
Jay520 said:
AbbathTheGrim said:
But the difference between 0.9999... and 1 is .1 not 0. 

 

At no point will you ever reach ....0001.

But I think it can, you just need:

0.9 + 0.1 = 1


I'm not sure what you mean, but I'll try to understand.

Let's change that 0.9 to 0.999 (infinite 9s). If the 1 were to remain 1, what would 0.1 have to change to? 

It would have to change to 0.000000.....

I don't know, it is just that adding "0" to something doesn't increase or decrease anything. Thinking about differences is what a number has that the other don't. When it comes to infinite numbers well, I guess that it would come down to someone writing the numbers until just before that person's death and in his final moments adding that .0000000000000000000000001, I guess. Maybe infinte numbers are not supposed to have a difference compared to other numbers. I sincerely don't know. I am just here boosting post count.



Nintendo is selling their IPs to Microsoft and this is true because:

http://gamrconnect.vgchartz.com/thread.php?id=221391&page=1

chapset said:

1=2

let's put

a=1   b=1

a=b

ab=b^2                       (multiply by b)

ab-a^2 = b^2 - a^2 (substract a^2)

a(b-a)= (b+a)(b-a)   (factorize)

a = b+a                      divide by (b-a)) - ERROR!

a= 2a                        (since a=b)

1= 2                           since(a=1)

b-a = 1-1 = 0 

You can't divide (b-a) because you can't divide by zero. Otherwise it would make that proof true and 1 would equal 2!



Jay is right. It's a fact.

http://www.basic-mathematics.com/converting-repeating-decimals-to-fractions.html

Look it up anywhere else if you do not trust this.



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Jay520 said:
chapset said:

1=2

let's put

a=1   b=1

a=b

ab=b^2                       (multiply by b)

ab-a^2 = b^2 - a^2 (substract a^2)

a(b-a)= (b+a)(b-a)   (factorize)

a = b+a                      divide by (b-a)) - ERROR!

a= 2a                        (since a=b)

1= 2                           since(a=1)

b-a = 1-1 = 0 

You can't divide (b-a) because you can't divide by zero. Otherwise it would make that proof true and 1 would equal 2!

welll let's put a=1 ast the end problem solved



Bet reminder: I bet with Tboned51 that Splatoon won't reach the 1 million shipped mark by the end of 2015. I win if he loses and I lose if I lost.

.999... =/= 1
It only approximately equals to it. It would be viewed the same way as a number approaches a limit, but never actually touching it. Calculus stuffs.

edit: "On the number line, there is no real number between 0.99999..... and 1. If there is no real number between any two numbers, then those two numbers are of the same value. There is no number higher than 0.9999... and lower than 1, therefore they are of the same value."

I should also say that for this part, it would be better to look at it as a line on a graph rather than a point on a number line.  



1- 0.9999.... = 1.0 -- That's FOUR ''9''(s)  TWO ''0'' and one ''1'' take in consideration that there's also two dots...

2- TWO + 0 = 2 so we have to split the 9999 in TWO

3- split 9999 in two, you get 99 and 99 -H-ALVE each and you get 49.5 and 49.5

4- 4+9 = 13 but there are TWO 4-9 so, 13 x 2 -- 5+5 = 10 = TEN take the ↑H↑ in ''halve'' and add it to TEN, you get THEN, so THEN

5- did you forgot the TWO dots? . and .? because they are 2 so 13 x 2/2 = 13

6- now we have only 13 and 1 (see line 1) since we haven't used it, if you take each individual number you get 1, 1 and --- 3

7- 1 and 1 are halves of 2 so we say each of them is HALF of something... ---HALF

8- if you pay attention you'll notice that the same letters in the word ALVE (see line 3) are used to form the word ---VALVE

9- the evidence is irrefutable, HALF LIFE 3 has been confirmed.



If you are familiar with the concept of taking an integral then it is quite similar to this argument. To find the area under a line (or any shape on a graph) you essentially have to take an infinite number of strips under the shape and add each of those areas together to find the overall area.

A lot of these arguments are based around infinity. Another example in mathematics is that if you have an equation of say:
(Infinity+1)/Infinity

What would be the answer?
The answer would still be 1 even though (9+1)/9 does not equal 1. This is because anything added or subtracted to infinity doesn't make a difference. Essentially when you have a REALLY large number such as infinity, all other numbers just don't have any effect on it. That is pretty much the argument.



 

MDMAlliance said:
.999... =/= 1
It only approximately equals to it. It would be viewed the same way as a number approaches a limit, but never actually touching it. Calculus stuffs.


What number is between 1 and 0.999999...(?)